Q1.
A particle of mass M moves along a horizontal x-axis from x = 0 to x = L. The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of x as μ_k(x) = μ₀ − αx, with μ_k(L) = 0. If the total work done by the frictional force during the motion is nμ₀MgL (where g is the acceleration due to gravity), the value of n is :
Solution: The frictional force is f_k(x) = μ_k(x)N = (μ₀ − αx)Mg (N = Mg on a horizontal surface). From μ_k(L) = 0 we get α = μ₀/L, so μ_k(x) = μ₀(1 − x/L). Work done by friction = ∫₀ᴸ (μ₀ − αx)Mg dx = μ₀Mg[x − x²/2L]₀ᴸ = μ₀Mg(L − L/2) = ½μ₀MgL. Comparing with nμ₀MgL gives n = 1/2 — option (4).
Q2.
The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of B. If number densities of the gases A and B are n_A and n_B respectively, then the correct option is :
- A. n_A = n_B
- B. n_A = 2 n_B
- C. n_A = (1/4) n_B
- D. n_A = (1/2) n_B ✓
Solution: λ = 1/(√2 π d² n); λ_A/λ_B = (d_B² n_B)/(d_A² n_A) = 1/2 with d_A = 2d_B ⇒ n_A = n_B/2.
Q3.
Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current I(t) is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points a and b for configuration P is E_P and that for configuration Q is E_Q. The ratio E_P/E_Q is : [Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]
Solution: The emf induced by an inductor is |E| = L·|dI/dt|. In configuration P (series) the current I(t) flows through both coils, but points a and b are across only the first coil, so E_P = L·(dI/dt). In configuration Q (parallel) the two identical coils are in parallel between a and b, so L_eq = L/2 and E_Q = (L/2)·(dI/dt). Therefore E_P/E_Q = L/(L/2) = 2 — option (4).
Q4.
For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5th harmonic of an open-ended pipe is a and that for the 5th harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is m, then a/m is :
- A. 5/9
- B. 9/5
- C. 5/3 ✓
- D. 4/5
Solution: Open pipe 5th harmonic: 5 nodes (a=5). Closed pipe 5th harmonic: 3 nodes (m=3). a/m = 5/3. ⚠ Verify options/convention.
Q5.
Consider a long solenoid of length l and radius r. If n is the number of turns per unit length and μ₀ is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :
- A. μ₀πn²r²l ✓
- B. μ₀n²r²l
- C. (μ₀/2π)n²r²l
- D. 2μ₀πn²r²l
Solution: L = μ₀n²(πr²)l = μ₀πn²r²l.
Q6.
Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by s(t) = αt² − βt + γ, where α = 1 m s⁻², β = 6 m s⁻¹ and γ = 5 m. The average speed of the particle, in m s⁻¹, from t = 0 to t = 6 s is :
Solution: v = 2t − 6 = 0 at t = 3 s. Distance = 9 + 9 = 18 m; average speed = 18/6 = 3 m s⁻¹.
Q7.
Consider the following nuclear reaction : ²³⁸₉₂U → ²³⁴₉₀Th + ⁴₂He. Take masses of ²³⁸U, ²³⁴Th and ⁴He as 238.050 u, 234.043 u and 4.003 u, respectively. The Q value for the reaction, in keV, is : (Given : 1 u = 931.5 MeV c⁻²)
- A. 3726 ✓
- B. 3730
- C. 3736
- D. 3740
Solution: Δm = 238.050 − 234.043 − 4.003 = 0.004 u; Q = 0.004 × 931.5 = 3.726 MeV = 3726 keV.
Q8.
A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time t, then variation of the photocurrent I and magnitude of the stopping potential |V| with time is best represented by :
- A. (1) ✓
- B. (2)
- C. (3)
- D. (4)
Solution: Photocurrent ∝ intensity → I falls linearly; stopping potential depends on frequency, so |V| stays constant. ⚠ Figure-based — verify the numbered graph.
Q9.
Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V, as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are U_P and U_T, respectively, then the ratio U_P/U_T is :
- A. 2/3
- B. 1/3
- C. 1/2
- D. 1/6 ✓
Solution: P and Q are in series: 1/C_PQ = 1/C + 1/C = 2/C, so C_PQ = C/2. S is in parallel with this combination, so C_eq = C_PQ + C = C/2 + C = 3C/2. Total energy U_T = ½C_eq V² = ½(3C/2)V² = (3/4)CV². As P and Q in series share the battery voltage, V_P = V/2, so U_P = ½C V_P² = ½C(V/2)² = (1/8)CV². Therefore U_P/U_T = (1/8)/(3/4) = 1/6 — option (4).
Q10.
Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is 15 N m⁻². The area of cross-section at P and Q are 40 cm² and 20 cm², respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in cm³ s⁻¹, is : [Take density of water = 1000 kg m⁻³]
- A. 100
- B. 200
- C. 300
- D. 400 ✓
Solution: v_Q = 2v_P; ΔP = (3/2)ρv_P² = 15 ⇒ v_P = 0.1 m s⁻¹; rate = 40 × 10 = 400 cm³ s⁻¹.
Q11.
A current I₀ flows through a metallic circular loop of radius r as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of the magnetic field at the center O of the loop is :
- A. μ₀I₀/12r ✓
- B. μ₀I₀/4r
- C. μ₀I₀/2r
- D. μ₀I₀/2πr
Solution: I_ABC = 2I₀/3, I_ADC = I₀/3; each semicircle gives μ₀I/4r, opposing: net = μ₀I₀/12r.
Q12.
In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity (v) with the ratio of density of spherical ball (σ) to density of the liquid (ρ), is best represented by :
- A. (1)
- B. (2)
- C. (3) ✓
- D. (4)
Solution: Weight F_W = (4/3)πR³σ·g; buoyancy F_B = (4/3)πR³ρ·g; viscous drag F_D = 6πηRv (Stokes' law). At terminal velocity F_W = F_B + F_D, giving (4/3)πR³(σ − ρ)g = 6πηRv, so v = (2R²g/9η)(σ − ρ) = (2R²gρ/9η)(σ/ρ − 1). With K = 2R²gρ/9η (a positive constant), v = K(σ/ρ) − K: a straight line of positive slope that is 0 at σ/ρ = 1 and equals −K at σ/ρ = 0. This is option (3).
Q13.
Two planets P₁ and P₂ with equal mass have radii R₁ and R₂, respectively, where R₂ = R₁/2. The escape speeds of P₁ and P₂ are v₁ and v₂, respectively. Then v₂/v₁ is :
Solution: v = √(2GM/R) ∝ 1/√R; v₂/v₁ = √(R₁/R₂) = √2.
Q14.
In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet during a circular orbit of radius R is proportional to :
- A. R^(1/2)
- B. R^(3/2) ✓
- C. R²
- D. R³
Solution: Kepler's third law T² ∝ R³, so T ∝ R^(3/2).
Q15.
Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents I and 2I, respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length λ and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is kept fixed at a height h above the floor. The minimum magnitude of h so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is : [g is the acceleration due to gravity and μ₀ is the permeability of free space.]
- A. μ₀I²/2πλg
- B. μ₀I²/πλg ✓
- C. 2μ₀I²/πλg
- D. 4μ₀I²/πλg
Solution: Wire A experiences a downward gravitational force per unit length F_g = λg. Currents in the same direction attract, so wire B (at height h) exerts an upward magnetic force per unit length F_m = μ₀ I_A I_B/(2πh) = μ₀(I)(2I)/(2πh) = μ₀I²/(πh). For wire A not to rise, F_m ≤ F_g: μ₀I²/(πh) ≤ λg ⇒ h ≥ μ₀I²/(πλg). Hence h_min = μ₀I²/(πλg) — option (2).
Q16.
An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of −3 V is reverse biased with a negative input voltage V_i = −5 V. The magnitude of voltage difference between points B and A is :
- A. 3 V
- B. 2 V ✓
- C. 1 V
- D. 0 V
Solution: The reverse-bias input magnitude |V_i| = 5 V exceeds the Zener breakdown voltage of 3 V, so the Zener is in breakdown and the voltage across it stays constant at 3 V. By KVL the input is shared between the Zener and the series resistor R: V_i = V_Zener + V_R. With points B and A across the resistor, 5 = 3 + V_BA, so V_BA = 5 − 3 = 2 V — option (2).
Q17.
In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (γ = 5/3) decreases from 60 K to 50 K. The work done by the gas in the process is : (Take the universal gas constant as R = 8.3 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
- A. 41.5 J
- B. 83 J
- C. 124.5 J ✓
- D. 166 J
Solution: W = −nC_VΔT = −(3/2 × 8.3)(50 − 60) = 124.5 J.
Q18.
A ray of light with wavelength λ is incident on three different photo-electric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelengths of these cells are λ₁, λ₂ and λ₃ respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials are V₁, V₂ and V₃ respectively. The relation between λ and threshold wavelengths are λ₁ < λ, λ₂ > λ and λ₃ ≫ λ. The correct option is :
- A. V₁ = 0, V₂ < V₃ ✓
- B. V₁ = 0, V₂ > V₃
- C. V₁ > V₂, V₃ = 0
- D. V₁ < V₂, V₃ = 0
Solution: By Einstein's photoelectric equation eV₀ = hc(1/λ − 1/λ₀), and emission needs λ ≤ λ₀ (otherwise V₀ = 0). Cell 1: λ₁ < λ means λ > λ₁, so no emission and V₁ = 0. Cells 2 and 3: λ < λ₂ and λ ≪ λ₃, so both emit. eV₂ = hc(1/λ − 1/λ₂) and eV₃ = hc(1/λ − 1/λ₃); since λ₃ > λ₂, 1/λ₃ < 1/λ₂, so (1/λ − 1/λ₃) > (1/λ − 1/λ₂), giving V₃ > V₂, i.e. V₂ < V₃. Hence V₁ = 0 and V₂ < V₃ — option (1).
Q19.
A photon and an electron, each of 20 eV energy, move in free space. The ratio of the momentum of the electron p_e to that of photon p_ph, i.e. p_e/p_ph, is : (Take speed of light = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹, charge of electron = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and mass of electron = 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg)
- A. 2/450
- B. 1/250
- C. 225 ✓
- D. 275
Solution: For a photon, momentum p_Ph = E/c. For a non-relativistic electron of kinetic energy E, p_e = √(2mE). Hence p_e/p_Ph = √(2mE)/(E/c) = c·√(2m/E). Substituting E = 20 eV = 20 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, m = 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg and c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s: the term inside the root is 2 × 9 × 10⁻³¹ / (32 × 10⁻¹⁹) = 9/16 × 10⁻¹², whose square root is 3/4 × 10⁻⁶. Therefore p_e/p_Ph = (3 × 10⁸)(3/4 × 10⁻⁶) = 9/4 × 10² = 225 — option (3).
Q20.
Which of the following measurements require 'index correction' ?
- A. Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
- B. Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
- C. Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench ✓
- D. Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
Solution: Index correction accounts for the gap between the index pointer and the actual position of the lens/object on an optical bench, so it applies to the optical-bench focal-length measurement.
Q21.
A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius R, having uniform positive charge density ρ, as shown in the figure. The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B at distances 2R and 3R respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is ρR²/nε₀. The value of n is : (ε₀ is the permittivity of vacuum)
Solution: A and B are outside the sphere, so it acts as a point charge Q = ρ(4/3)πR³. |W| = (Q/4πε₀)(1/2R − 1/3R) = (ρR³/3ε₀)(1/6R) = ρR²/(18ε₀), so n = 18.
Q22.
Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices 1, 1.25 and 1.5, respectively. The medium Q having a thickness of 5 cm is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object is placed at the centre of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth of O is h₁. For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is h₂. The value of |h₁ − h₂|, in cm, is :
Solution: The object lies at the centre of the 5 cm medium Q, so its real depth from each interface is 5/2 = 2.5 cm. Apparent depth d_app = d_real × (n_observer / n_object). Viewed from P: h₁ = 2.5 × (1/1.25) = 2.5 × 4/5 = 2.0 cm. Viewed from R: h₂ = 2.5 × (1.5/1.25) = 2.5 × 6/5 = 3.0 cm. Therefore |h₁ − h₂| = |2.0 − 3.0| = 1 cm — option (2).
Q23.
A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point A (θ = π/2) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point B (θ = −π/2). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum P of the system, as a function of θ ?
- A. (1)
- B. (2)
- C. (3) ✓
- D. (4)
Solution: Both unit-mass particles start at A (θ = π/2) and move with equal angular speed ω in opposite directions. Taking θ as Particle 1's angular position, Particle 2 is at (π − θ). Their velocities are v₁ = (ω sinθ, −ω cosθ) and v₂ = (−ω sinθ, −ω cosθ). Since m = 1, the total momentum is P = v₁ + v₂ = (0, −2ω cosθ), so its magnitude is |P| = 2ω|cosθ|. This is 0 at θ = ±π/2 (points A and B), rises to a maximum of 2ω at θ = 0, and is symmetric — an inverted-U |cosθ| curve. This matches Figure (3).
Q24.
The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius R is raised by a small amount ΔT. If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is α, the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is :
- A. 2πR³αΔT
- B. 3πR³αΔT
- C. 4πR³αΔT ✓
- D. 6πR³αΔT
Solution: ΔV = γVΔT = 3α·(4/3)πR³·ΔT = 4πR³αΔT.
Q25.
A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density ρ. If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density ρ₀, then another oscillation has time period 2T. The value of ρ₀/ρ is :
Solution: For a floating cylinder T = 2π√(Lρ_cork/(ρ_liquid g)) ∝ 1/√ρ_liquid. So T₀/T = √(ρ/ρ₀) = 2 ⇒ ρ/ρ₀ = 4 ⇒ ρ₀/ρ = 1/4.
Q26.
One main scale division of a Vernier callipers is equal to 1 mm and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is 10. When both the jaws touch each other, the zero of the Vernier scale shifts to the left of the zero of the main scale in such a way that 4th Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of the wire to be 1.00 cm, the actual length of the wire is :
- A. 0.60 cm
- B. 0.96 cm
- C. 1.00 cm
- D. 1.04 cm ✓
Solution: Least count = 1 mm/10 = 0.1 mm. The vernier zero to the left of the main zero is a negative zero error of magnitude 4 × 0.1 = 0.4 mm = 0.04 cm, which is added: actual = 1.00 + 0.04 = 1.04 cm. ⚠ Zero-error convention can vary — verify against the official key.
Q27.
A solid sphere A of radius R and mass M is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius r < R and mass m < M, so that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is I_A, and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is I_B. The difference I_A − I_B is :
- A. (M − m)(R + r)²
- B. (m − M)(R + r)² ✓
- C. (m − M)(R − r)²
- D. 0
Solution: The spheres touch externally, so the centre-to-centre distance is d = R + r. About a vertical axis through A's centre, sphere A contributes (2/5)MR² and sphere B (by the parallel-axis theorem) contributes (2/5)mr² + m(R + r)²: I_A = (2/5)MR² + (2/5)mr² + m(R + r)². About a vertical axis through B's centre: I_B = (2/5)MR² + (2/5)mr² + M(R + r)². Subtracting, the central terms cancel: I_A − I_B = m(R + r)² − M(R + r)² = (m − M)(R + r)² — option (2).
Q28.
Consider a spring-mass system executing simple harmonic motion, where the spring constant is k and the mass is m. At any instant the displacement is x and the speed of the particle is v. On the v−x plane, if the graph of v as a function of x is a circle, then the correct option is :
- A. k = 1/m
- B. k = m ✓
- C. k = m²
- D. k = √m
Solution: v = ω√(A² − x²) traces an ellipse on the v–x plane; it is a circle only when ω = 1, i.e. √(k/m) = 1 ⇒ k = m.
Q29.
The lens combination as shown in the figure consists of two lenses, L₁ and L₂, of focal lengths +10 cm and −10 cm, respectively. The position of the image formed is :
- A. 20 cm to the left of the concave lens
- B. 60 cm to the left of the concave lens ✓
- C. 30 cm to the right of the concave lens
- D. 60 cm to the right of the concave lens
Solution: First lens L₁ (convex, f₁ = +10 cm) with object at u₁ = −30 cm: 1/v₁ = 1/f₁ + 1/u₁ = 1/10 − 1/30 = 2/30, so v₁ = +15 cm — a real image 15 cm to the right of L₁. This image acts as a virtual object for L₂ (concave, f₂ = −10 cm), which is 3 cm away, so u₂ = 15 − 3 = +12 cm. Then 1/v₂ = 1/f₂ + 1/u₂ = −1/10 + 1/12 = (−6 + 5)/60 = −1/60, giving v₂ = −60 cm. The negative sign means the final image is virtual, 60 cm to the left of the concave lens — option (2).
Q30.
An ac voltage V = 220 sin(2π × 10⁴ t) Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is : (Given : L = 10 mH, C = 25 μF, R = 100 Ω)
- A. 2.2 A ✓
- B. 5.5 A
- C. 11.0 A
- D. 22.0 A
Solution: At series resonance Z = R = 100 Ω, so I₀ = 220/100 = 2.2 A. ⚠ The printed L, C, ω do not actually satisfy resonance (give ≈0.35 A) — verify against the official key.
Q31.
A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is L_A and L_B computed about points A and B, respectively, with OB = 2 × OA. The value of L_A/L_B is :
Solution: The disc spins about its fixed centre O, so its total linear momentum is zero — for every mass element moving with velocity v there is an identical one on the opposite side moving with −v. The angular momentum about any point P is L_P = L_O + r_{O/P} × P_total; since P_total = 0, the second term vanishes, so L_P = L_O for every point. Hence L_A = L_B = L_O regardless of OA or OB, and L_A/L_B = 1 — option (3).
Q32.
A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the x−y plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the z direction. The area of the loop varies with time as A = A₀(1 + sin t). The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power P dissipated in the loop as a function of time is :
- A. (1)
- B. (2) ✓
- C. (3)
- D. (4)
Solution: EMF = −B·dA/dt = −BA₀ cos t, so P = EMF²/R ∝ cos²t — identical humps touching zero, period π, never negative. ⚠ Figure-based — verify the numbered graph.
Q33.
A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are E_A, E_B and E_C, respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the centre of the solid sphere. The correct option is :
- A. E_A > 0, E_B = E_C
- B. E_A = 0, E_B = E_C ✓
- C. E_A > 0, E_B > E_C
- D. E_A = 0, E_B > E_C
Solution: Inside the conductor material E = 0 (E_A = 0). Outside, the induced charge on the outer surface makes the field spherically symmetric, so points at equal distance have equal fields (E_B = E_C). ⚠ Depends on the positions of A, B, C in the figure.
Q34.
Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius R and total charge +Q. A point charge −q (q < Q) with mass m is released from rest at a distance of 3R from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is : (ε₀ is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces)
- A. √(3Qq/4πε₀mR)
- B. √(2Qq/3πε₀mR)
- C. √(Qq/3πε₀mR) ✓
- D. √(Qq/4πε₀mR)
Solution: Only the conservative electrostatic force acts, so mechanical energy is conserved: K_i + U_i = K_f + U_f. Outside the sphere it behaves as a point charge Q at the centre. At r = 3R: V_i = Q/(4πε₀·3R), so U_i = (−q)V_i = −Qq/(12πε₀R); released from rest, K_i = 0. At the surface r = R: V_f = Q/(4πε₀R), so U_f = −Qq/(4πε₀R) and K_f = ½mv². Then 0 − Qq/(12πε₀R) = ½mv² − Qq/(4πε₀R), giving ½mv² = Qq/(4πε₀R) − Qq/(12πε₀R) = (3 − 1)Qq/(12πε₀R) = Qq/(6πε₀R). Hence v² = Qq/(3πε₀mR) and v = √(Qq/(3πε₀mR)) — option (3).
Q35.
In Geiger-Marsden's experiment, the number of scattered α-particles N(θ) is plotted as a function of the scattering angle θ. Which of the following options represents the correct plot ?
- A. (1)
- B. (2)
- C. (3) ✓
- D. (4)
Solution: By Rutherford's scattering formula, N(θ) ∝ 1/sin⁴(θ/2). At small angles sin(θ/2) is tiny, so N(θ) is very large (≈10⁷ — most α-particles pass nearly straight through). As θ increases toward 180°, sin(θ/2) → 1 and N(θ) falls to its smallest value (≈10¹ — only about 1 in 8000 are scattered through large angles). So the plot starts very high near 0°, drops sharply, then flattens out — option (3).
Q36.
Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, +α, while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, −α, as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by I_A and I_B. At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is R₀. As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is :
- A. I_A remains constant while I_B increases ✓
- B. I_A decreases while I_B increases
- C. I_A increases while I_B decreases
- D. both I_A and I_B remain constant
Solution: In the series circuit R₀(1+αT)+R₀(1−αT)=2R₀ is constant (current constant); in the parallel circuit the resistance decreases as T rises (current increases). ⚠ Which of A/B is series vs parallel depends on the figure.
Q37.
Consider that α, k_B and b represent the Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien's displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of α·k_B³·b is :
- A. [M⁴L⁷T⁻⁹K⁻⁶] ✓
- B. [L⁻¹K⁻¹T⁻¹]
- C. [L⁻²T⁻²K⁻¹]
- D. [L⁻²T⁻¹K⁻¹]
Solution: α = [MT⁻³K⁻⁴], k_B = [ML²T⁻²K⁻¹], b = [LK]; α·k_B³·b = [M⁴L⁷T⁻⁹K⁻⁶]. ⚠ The printed options/expression were hard to read on the scan — verify against the official key.
Q38.
An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having dielectric constant ε_r = 9 has the electric field E_x = E₀ sin(kz − 2π×10⁶ t) V m⁻¹, where E₀ is the amplitude and k is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is :
- A. The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 10⁸ ms⁻¹
- B. The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 300 m ✓
- C. The magnetic field is given by the relation B_y = (B₀/v) sin(kz − 2π×10⁶ t), where v is the speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium
- D. The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along +z
Solution: The medium has ε_r = 9 and μ_r = 1. From E_x = E₀ sin(kz − 2π×10⁶ t), ω = 2π×10⁶ rad s⁻¹, so f = 10⁶ Hz. The speed inside the medium is v = c/√(ε_r μ_r) = (3×10⁸)/√9 = 10⁸ m s⁻¹ — so statement (1) is correct, and the kz − ωt phase gives propagation along +z, making statement (4) correct. The wavelength is λ = v/f = 10⁸/10⁶ = 100 m, not 300 m, so statement (2) is the incorrect one. Hence the incorrect choice is option (2). (This question asks for the wrong statement, so option (2) is the marked answer.)
Q39.
One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is :
- A. 400 J
- B. 500 J
- C. 600 J ✓
- D. 800 J
Solution: For a complete cyclic process the internal energy returns to its starting value (ΔU = 0), so by the first law of thermodynamics the net heat equals the net work, which equals the area enclosed by the cycle on the P–V diagram. The cycle is a rectangle with ΔP = 300 − 100 = 200 N/m² and ΔV = 5 − 2 = 3 m³, so Q_net = W_net = ΔP × ΔV = 200 × 3 = 600 J — option (3).
Q40.
Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of a Hydrogen atom with velocity √25.6 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹. The radius of the orbit is x × 10⁻⁹ m. The value of x is : (e = 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C, mₑ = 9×10⁻³¹ kg, 1/4πε₀ = 9×10⁹ N m² C⁻²)
Solution: In Bohr's model the electrostatic attraction provides the centripetal force: mv²/r = (1/4πε₀)(e²/r²), so r = (1/4πε₀)(e²/mv²). With v = √25.6 × 10⁵ m/s, v² = 25.6 × 10¹⁰ m²/s²; e² = 2.56 × 10⁻³⁸ C²; m = 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg; 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹. Then r = (9×10⁹)(2.56×10⁻³⁸) / [(9×10⁻³¹)(25.6×10¹⁰)] = (2.56/25.6) × 10^(−29−(−21)) = 0.1 × 10⁻⁸ = 1 × 10⁻⁹ m. Hence x = 1 — option (1).
Q41.
A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius 50 m, which is banked at an angle θ. If the car travels at a speed of 10 m s⁻¹, then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be 10 m s⁻², the value of θ is :
- A. tan⁻¹(1/√5) ✓
- B. tan⁻¹(2/√5)
- C. tan⁻¹(2√5)
- D. tan⁻¹(√3/2)
Solution: Minimum wear ⇒ no friction ⇒ tan θ = v²/(rg) = 100/(50×10) = 1/5, θ = tan⁻¹(1/5). ⚠ None of the printed options is exactly tan⁻¹(1/5) — verify the option values against the official key.
Q42.
Three identical p-n junction diodes D₁, D₂ and D₃ are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the widths of the depletion regions of D₁, D₂ and D₃ are W₁, W₂ and W₃, respectively, then the correct option is :
- A. W₁ > W₂ > W₃
- B. W₃ = W₁ > W₂
- C. W₃ > W₂ > W₁ ✓
- D. W₂ > W₁ = W₃
Solution: The 5 V battery's left terminal is positive and the right is negative. D₁: its p-side (triangle) connects to + and n-side to −, so it is forward biased → depletion width W₁ decreases (minimum). D₂: its branch has an open switch/break, so no voltage is applied across it — it is unbiased → W₂ stays at its standard value (middle). D₃: its p-side connects to − and n-side to +, so it is reverse biased → W₃ increases (maximum). Hence W₃ > W₂ > W₁ — option (3).
Q43.
The following table presents parts of the electromagnetic spectrum (P–S) and their corresponding major applications (I–IV). The correct option is :
- A. P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
- B. P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III
- C. P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III ✓
- D. P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
Solution: Microwave → warming food (II); UV rays → purifying water (I); Gamma rays → treating cancer cells (IV); Radio wave → AM and FM communication (III). Hence P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III.
Q44.
Bob B of mass m at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length 10 m, as shown in the figure. Point mass A of mass m travelling horizontally with speed 10 m s⁻¹ hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises to a height h after the collision. Taking the acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m s⁻² and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of h is :
Solution: Elastic collision of equal masses: A stops, B moves with 10 m s⁻¹. h = v²/2g = 100/20 = 5 m.
Q45.
An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational and three rotational modes. If the number of vibrational modes is f and the ratio of heat capacities C_P/C_V is 8/7, then the value of f is :
Solution: Degrees of freedom d = 3 + 3 + 2f. γ = (d+2)/d = 8/7 ⇒ d = 14 ⇒ 6 + 2f = 14 ⇒ f = 4.
Q46.
For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option :
- A. If P is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, Q is a primary alcohol
- B. P and Q are aromatic compounds
- C. If P gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, Q gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light ✓
- D. Both P and Q are carbonyl compounds
Solution: Benzene undergoes Friedel–Crafts acylation with CH₃COCl/AlCl₃ to give acetophenone (C₆H₅COCH₃). Acetophenone has a methyl ketone group, so with NaOCl it undergoes the haloform reaction, giving P = sodium benzoate (C₆H₅COONa) and Q = chloroform (CHCl₃). On acidification, P gives benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH); Q (chloroform) on exposure to air and light is slowly oxidised to the poisonous gas phosgene: 2CHCl₃ + O₂ →(light) 2COCl₂ + 2HCl. This matches option (3). (Q is chloroform, not a primary alcohol; chloroform is aliphatic, not aromatic; and neither product is a carbonyl compound — so options 1, 2 and 4 are wrong.)
Q47.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : [Fe(ox)₃]³⁻ is chiral. Statement-II : trans-[Cr(C₂O₄)₂(H₂O)₂]⁻ is chiral. (Given : ox = HOOC-COOH). In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect ✓
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: The tris-chelate [Fe(ox)₃]³⁻ is chiral (Statement-I correct); the trans-bis(oxalato) complex has a plane of symmetry and is achiral (Statement-II incorrect).
Q48.
The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with :
- A. filled σ and filled π orbitals ✓
- B. empty σ* and empty π* orbitals
- C. empty σ* and filled π orbitals
- D. filled σ and empty π* orbitals
Solution: A carbocation is stabilised by donation from filled orbitals into the empty p orbital — filled σ(C–H) (hyperconjugation) and a filled π system (conjugation). ⚠ Structure-based — verify the figure.
Q49.
In potash alum, the ratio of K⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ions is :
- A. 1:2 ✓
- B. 2:1
- C. 2:3
- D. 3:2
Solution: Potash alum is KAl(SO₄)₂·12H₂O, with one K⁺ and two SO₄²⁻ per formula unit, so K⁺ : SO₄²⁻ = 1:2.
Q50.
The correct statement about peptides and proteins is :
- A. Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits
- B. Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active
- C. In β-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds ✓
- D. In α-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw through intramolecular hydrogen bonds
Solution: (1) Wrong — having two or more polypeptide subunits describes the quaternary structure, not the tertiary (tertiary = the overall 3-D folding of a single polypeptide chain). (2) Wrong — many proteins are biologically active at the tertiary level as single chains (e.g. myoglobin, lysozyme). (3) Correct — in a β-pleated sheet the adjacent polypeptide strands are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds (between the C=O of one chain and the N–H of an adjacent chain). (4) Wrong — the α-helix is a right-handed (not left-handed) screw, stabilised by intramolecular hydrogen bonds. Hence the correct statement is option (3).
Q51.
The numbers 17.0145 and 21.0235 were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are :
- A. 17.014 and 21.023
- B. 17.015 and 21.023
- C. 17.014 and 21.024 ✓
- D. 17.015 and 21.024
Solution: Round-half-to-even: 17.0145 → 17.014 (kept digit 4 is even) and 21.0235 → 21.024 (kept digit 3 is odd, rounds up to even 4).
Q52.
The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K (K_sp: AgBr = 5.0×10⁻¹³, Zn(OH)₂ = 1.0×10⁻¹⁵, Hg₂Cl₂ = 1.3×10⁻¹⁸) is :
- A. Hg₂Cl₂ > Zn(OH)₂ > AgBr
- B. Hg₂Cl₂ > AgBr > Zn(OH)₂
- C. Zn(OH)₂ > Hg₂Cl₂ > AgBr
- D. Zn(OH)₂ > AgBr > Hg₂Cl₂ ✓
Solution: Solubilities: AgBr s=√Ksp=7.1×10⁻⁷; Zn(OH)₂ s=(Ksp/4)^⅓=6.3×10⁻⁶; Hg₂Cl₂ s=(Ksp/4)^⅓=6.9×10⁻⁷. So Zn(OH)₂ > AgBr > Hg₂Cl₂. ⚠ AgBr and Hg₂Cl₂ are close — verify option order.
Q53.
Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is :
- A. F > Cl > Br > I
- B. Br > Cl > F > I
- C. Cl > F > Br > I ✓
- D. I > Br > Cl > F
Solution: Electron gain enthalpy generally becomes less negative down a group (the larger atom adds the incoming electron farther from the nucleus): Cl > Br > I. The exception is F vs Cl — fluorine's very small, compact 2p subshell causes strong inter-electronic repulsion on the incoming electron, whereas in chlorine the electron enters the larger 3p subshell with less repulsion, so chlorine has a more negative electron gain enthalpy than fluorine (Cl > F). Combining the two gives Cl > F > Br > I — option (3).
Q54.
Given below are two statements : Assertion A : For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, ΔmixH = 0 and ΔmixV = 0. Reason R : No interactions occur between P and Q. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
- B. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
- C. A is correct but R is not correct ✓
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: Assertion A is correct: an ideal solution obeys Raoult's law over the entire composition range, and for it there is no enthalpy change (ΔmixH = 0) and no volume change (ΔmixV = 0) on mixing. Reason R is incorrect: in a liquid solution intermolecular interactions are always present — for an ideal solution the new P–Q interactions are exactly equal in magnitude to the original P–P and Q–Q interactions, not absent. 'No interactions occur' would describe a mixture of ideal gases, not liquids. Hence A is true but R is false — option (3).
Q55.
The amino acid that gives a red-to-blood-red colour on treating with sodium nitroprusside is :
- A. leucine
- B. threonine
- C. methionine ✓
- D. serine
Solution: The sodium nitroprusside test detects sulfur-containing amino acids; of the options, methionine is the only sulfur-containing amino acid. ⚠ The test is classically for a free thiol (cysteine) — verify the intended answer.
Q56.
The standard electrode potential (E°) for the half-cell reaction Fe³⁺ + e⁻ → Fe²⁺ at 298 K is : (Given : E°(Fe³⁺/Fe) = −0.04 V and E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) = −0.44 V at 298 K)
- A. +0.40 V
- B. +0.76 V ✓
- C. −0.48 V
- D. +0.92 V
Solution: Standard electrode potentials are intensive and cannot be added directly, but their Gibbs free energies (ΔG° = −nFE°) are extensive and add up. Reaction 1: Fe³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Fe, E° = −0.04 V → ΔG₁° = −3F(−0.04) = +0.12F. Reaction 2: Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe, E° = −0.44 V → ΔG₂° = −2F(−0.44) = +0.88F. The target Fe³⁺ + e⁻ → Fe²⁺ = Reaction 1 − Reaction 2, so ΔG₃° = ΔG₁° − ΔG₂° = 0.12F − 0.88F = −0.76F. Since ΔG₃° = −1·F·E₃°, E₃° = +0.76 V — option (2).
Q57.
In an acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with KMnO₄ solution. If the volume of KMnO₄ solution required to reach the end point is 10 mL, the strength of the KMnO₄ solution is :
- A. 0.10 M ✓
- B. 0.20 M
- C. 0.25 M
- D. 0.15 M
Solution: At the end point the gram-equivalents of KMnO₄ equal those of oxalic acid: M₁v₁V₁ = M₂v₂V₂, where v is the n-factor. In acidic medium KMnO₄ (MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O) has n-factor 5; oxalic acid (C₂O₄²⁻ → 2CO₂ + 2e⁻) has n-factor 2. So M₁·5·10 = 0.25·2·10 ⟹ M₁·5 = 0.50 ⟹ M₁ = 0.10 M — option (1).
Q58.
According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is :
- A. CO > NH₃ > H₂O > Cl⁻ ✓
- B. Cl⁻ > NH₃ > H₂O > CO
- C. CO > H₂O > NH₃ > Cl⁻
- D. Cl⁻ > H₂O > NH₃ > CO
Solution: From the spectrochemical series (strong → weak): CO > NH₃ > H₂O > Cl⁻.
Q59.
Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K. The values of ΔS_system and ΔS_surroundings are : (R is the universal gas constant)
- A. ΔS_system = 0, ΔS_surroundings = 0
- B. ΔS_system = 4.606R, ΔS_surroundings = −4.606R
- C. ΔS_system = 0, ΔS_surroundings = 4.606R
- D. ΔS_system = 4.606R, ΔS_surroundings = 0 ✓
Solution: In free expansion the gas expands against a vacuum (P_ext = 0), so the work W = −P_ext·ΔV = 0. The process is isothermal and for an ideal gas ΔU = 0, so by the first law q = ΔU − W = 0 — no heat is exchanged with the surroundings, giving ΔS_surroundings = q_surr/T = 0. Entropy is a state function, so ΔS_system is found via a reversible isothermal path: ΔS_system = nR ln(V₂/V₁) = 2 × R × 2.303 × log₁₀(100/10) = 2 × R × 2.303 × 1 = 4.606 R. Hence ΔS_system = 4.606 R and ΔS_surroundings = 0 — option (4).
Q60.
2A → B is a zero-order reaction, where k = 1.0 mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹. If the initial concentration of A is 2 M, then the time taken to complete 75% of the reaction will be :
- A. 1.5 min
- B. 0.75 min ✓
- C. 1.0 min
- D. 2.0 min
Solution: For 2A → B (zero order), rate = −(1/2)d[A]/dt = k[A]⁰ = k, so −d[A]/dt = 2k and the integrated rate law is [A]_t = [A]₀ − 2kt, giving t = ([A]₀ − [A]_t)/(2k). 75% complete means 25% of A remains: [A]_t = 0.25 × 2 = 0.5 M, so the amount reacted is [A]₀ − [A]_t = 2 − 0.5 = 1.5 M. Then t = 1.5/(2 × 1.0) = 0.75 min — option (2). (Note: 1.5 M is the amount reacted, not the time.)
Q61.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points. Reason R : Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
- B. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
- C. A is correct but R is not correct
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: 3d transition metals generally have high melting points, and this is due to the involvement of both 3d and 4s electrons in metallic bonding. So both are correct and R explains A.
Q62.
For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of Λ_m versus √c has a slope of −90.0 S cm² mol⁻³ᐟ² L¹ᐟ² at 298 K. At 0.01 M concentration of XY, the value of Λ_m is 145.0 S cm² mol⁻¹. The limiting molar conductivity Λ°_m of Y⁻ will be : (Given : Λ°_m(X⁺) = 74.0 S cm² mol⁻¹)
- A. 80.0 ✓
- B. 100.0
- C. 90.0
- D. 76.0
Solution: Λ°_m(XY) = Λ_m + (90)(√0.01) = 145 + 9 = 154; Λ°_m(Y⁻) = 154 − 74.0 = 80.0 S cm² mol⁻¹. ⚠ Verify whether Y⁻ or XY is asked.
Q63.
The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is : (Given : atomic mass in amu, H = 1, C = 12 and O = 16)
- A. 352 g ✓
- B. 322 g
- C. 176 g
- D. 362 g
Solution: n-Butane (C₄H₁₀, M = 58): 116 g = 2 mol → 8 mol CO₂ = 8 × 44 = 352 g.
Q64.
For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below. If the energy of activation is 6.64 kJ mol⁻¹ and R = 8.3 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, the temperature at which the rate constant becomes e² min⁻¹ is :
- A. 125 K
- B. 150 K
- C. 200 K ✓
- D. 250 K
Solution: ln k = ln A − Ea/RT with Ea/R = 6640/8.3 = 800; reading intercept ln A = 6 and setting ln k = 2 gives 2 = 6 − 800/T ⇒ T = 200 K. ⚠ Depends on the plot's intercept — verify the figure.
Q65.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Heating NaCl with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in oxidation of Mn. Statement-II : Heating NaI with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in reduction of Mn. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct ✓
Solution: In both reactions manganese goes from +4 in MnO₂ to +2 in MnCl₂/MnI₂ — Mn is reduced, while the halide ion (Cl⁻ or I⁻) is oxidised to the halogen. Statement-I claims that heating NaCl with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in oxidation of Mn — this is false (Mn is reduced; it is chlorine that is oxidised). Statement-II claims that heating NaI under the same conditions results in reduction of Mn — this is true. Hence Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct — option (4).
Q66.
Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for : (Given : Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27)
- A. [Mn(CN)₆]³⁻ ✓
- B. [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻
- C. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
- D. [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺
Solution: [Mn(CN)₆]³⁻ (Mn³⁺ d⁴, low spin) has 2 unpaired electrons; [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻ (d⁵ LS) 1; [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (d⁶ LS) 0; [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ (d¹) 1. Highest is [Mn(CN)₆]³⁻.
Q67.
The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is : (Given : Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67)
- A. Nd³⁺
- B. Ce³⁺
- C. Tb³⁺
- D. Ho³⁺ ✓
Solution: Ho³⁺ is [Xe]4f¹⁰: ten electrons in seven f-orbitals leave four unpaired.
Q68.
The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is :
- A. [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl·H₂O
- B. [Co(NH₃)₄]Cl₃·H₂O
- C. [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl
- D. [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl₂ ✓
Solution: Decode the name: cobalt(III) → Co³⁺; tetraammine → four NH₃; aqua → one H₂O; chlorido → one Cl⁻ ligand inside the coordination sphere. The complex ion is therefore [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl], with net charge = (+3) + 4(0) + 1(0) + 1(−1) = +2. A +2 complex cation needs two chloride counter-ions outside the sphere, giving [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl₂ — option (4).
Q69.
Consider the reversible processes for 1.0 mol of an ideal gas as shown in the figure. w₁, w₂, w₃ and w₄ represent the work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively. ΔU₁ and ΔU₂ are the changes in the internal energy for processes 2 and 4 respectively. [Use R = 2 cal K⁻¹ mol⁻¹]. The correct option is :
- A. w₁ + w₃ = −2T₁ ln(V₂/V₁) − 2T₂ ln(V₄/V₃) ✓
- B. w₂ + w₄ = ΔU₂ − ΔU₁
- C. w₁ + w₂ = 2T₁ ln(V₂/V₁)
- D. w₁ + w₂ + w₃ + w₄ = 0
Solution: Processes 1 and 3 are isothermal (work = −nRT ln(V_f/V_i)) and 2, 4 are adiabatic (work = −ΔU). ⚠ Figure-based (P–V cycle) — verify the correct relation against the official key.
Q70.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F. Reason R : The loss of an electron from O leads to a stable half-filled p orbital. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
- B. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A ✓
- C. A is correct but R is not correct
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: Assertion A is correct: IE₁(O) < IE₁(N) because removing an electron from oxygen (2p⁴, which has a paired 2p electron experiencing inter-electronic repulsion) is easier than from the stable half-filled nitrogen (2p³); and IE₁(O) < IE₁(F) because the effective nuclear charge increases from O to F, making fluorine harder to ionise. Reason R is also correct: O → O⁺ gives a 2p³ configuration, a stable half-filled subshell. However, R only explains why IE₁(O) < IE₁(N); it does not explain why IE₁(O) < IE₁(F) (that is due to the higher nuclear charge of F). So both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A — option (2).
Q71.
Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids : A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range. B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law. The correct option is :
- A. A and B only ✓
- B. B and C only
- C. A only
- D. A and C only
Solution: A is true; chloroform + acetone form H-bonds → negative deviation (B true). Aniline + phenol also H-bond → negative, not positive deviation, so C is false. Hence A and B only.
Q72.
One of the products formed in the following reaction is :
- A. Dicyclohexylamine
- B. 2-Aminobiphenyl derivative
- C. Bicyclohexyl
- D. Cyclohexane ✓
Solution: The reaction is between cyclohexylmagnesium bromide (a Grignard reagent, C₆H₁₁MgBr) and cyclohexylamine (C₆H₁₁NH₂), which has acidic N–H hydrogens. A Grignard reagent reacts with any active/acidic hydrogen (–OH, –NH₂, –COOH) by a rapid acid–base proton transfer (Zerevitinov reaction) rather than nucleophilic addition. The strongly basic cyclohexyl carbanion abstracts an N–H proton and is converted to its parent hydrocarbon: C₆H₁₁MgBr + C₆H₁₁NH₂ → C₆H₁₂ + C₆H₁₁NHMgBr. So one of the products formed is cyclohexane — option (4).
Q73.
The correct statement is :
- A. Boron has a maximum covalency of four ✓
- B. Beryllium has three valence orbitals
- C. Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four
- D. Aluminium has five valence orbitals
Solution: Boron (period 2) has only 2s and 2p valence orbitals (four), so its maximum covalency is 4 (e.g. BF₄⁻).
Q74.
A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to N ⇌ D. At 60 °C, the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is 666 kJ mol⁻¹. The standard entropy change (ΔS°) in kJ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ of the protein upon denaturation at 60 °C is closest to :
- A. 2.0 ✓
- B. 2000.0
- C. 333.0
- D. 11.1
Solution: At equilibrium [N] = [D] ⇒ K = 1 ⇒ ΔG° = 0 = ΔH° − TΔS°, so ΔS° = ΔH°/T = 666/333 = 2.0 kJ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹.
Q75.
Match the species in List-I with their geometry in List-II and choose the correct answer :
- A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-II
- B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓
- C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
- D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Solution: PCl₅ → trigonal bipyramidal; BrF₅ → square pyramidal; BF₄⁻ → tetrahedral; [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ → square planar. Hence A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. ⚠ Verify the List-I species C and the option order.
Q76.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with Br₂ in CCl₄ gives the following product. Statement-II : cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline KMnO₄ gives the following product. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect ✓
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Statement I: trans-but-2-ene + Br₂ in CCl₄ adds anti (via a cyclic bromonium ion). Trans alkene + anti-addition gives the meso product, and the drawn Newman projection of 2,3-dibromobutane is indeed meso (a plane of symmetry exists when the methyls are eclipsed) — so Statement I is correct. Statement II: cis-but-2-ene + cold alkaline KMnO₄ (Baeyer's reagent) adds syn (syn-dihydroxylation). Cis alkene + syn-addition should give the meso diol, but the structure drawn for Statement II is the threo/racemic form (the two –OH groups do not eclipse), so the shown product is wrong and Statement II is incorrect. Hence Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect — option (3).
Q77.
Consider the following reaction sequence and choose the correct option :
- A. K and L are geometrical isomers ✓
- B. K and L are enantiomers
- C. M and N are geometrical isomers
- D. M and N are stereoisomers
Solution: ⚠ The reaction sequence and intermediates K, L, M, N are drawn as structures — verify against the figure/official key.
Q78.
The complex which has both facial and meridional isomers is : (Given : py = pyridine and en = H₂N-CH₂-CH₂-NH₂)
- A. [Cr(py)₃Cl₃] ✓
- B. [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
- C. [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)₂]³⁺
- D. [Ni(en)₂(H₂O)₂]²⁺
Solution: fac/mer isomerism occurs in octahedral [MA₃B₃] complexes; [Cr(py)₃Cl₃] is of this type.
Q79.
Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A and B only
- B. B and D only ✓
- C. A and C only
- D. C and D only
Solution: B (Hofmann bromamide degradation of benzamide) and D (acid hydrolysis of acetanilide) give aniline; A gives benzylamine and NaBH₄ does not reduce nitrobenzene to aniline. ⚠ Reactions drawn as structures — verify option lettering.
Q80.
Match the vitamins in List-I with their sources in List-II and choose the correct answer :
- A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
- B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III ✓
- C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
- D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Solution: Vitamin A → carrots; vitamin B₁₂ → meat; vitamin E → sunflower oil; vitamin K → green leafy vegetables. Hence A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III. ⚠ Verify the printed option order.
Q81.
The correct decreasing order of the oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is :
- A. B₂O₁₀ > SO₃ > H₂O
- B. N₂O₅ > Al₂O₃ > H₂S ✓
- C. P₂O₃ > N₂O₃ > SO₃
- D. P₂O₅ > Cl₂O₇ > AlH₃
Solution: ⚠ The molecules and underlined atoms were not legible on the scan — please verify this question and its options against the official key.
Q82.
The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below is :
- A. (1) ✓
- B. (2)
- C. (3)
- D. (4)
Solution: The reaction is a base-catalysed (NaOH, Δ) aldol condensation of 2,2-dimethylcyclopentanone with benzaldehyde. Benzaldehyde has no α-hydrogen, so it acts only as the electrophile; in the cyclic ketone the α-carbon bearing the two methyls has no α-H, so the enolate can form only at the other α-carbon (the –CH₂– site). From there: crossed aldol with benzaldehyde gives the E- and Z-condensation products (options 2 and 4 — both possible), and self-aldol of the ketone gives the product where the active α-carbon is joined by a C=C to the former carbonyl carbon of a second ketone molecule (option 3 — possible). Option (1) shows the double bond formed inside the ring rather than connecting the two units, which is not a valid dehydrated aldol-condensation product — so it cannot be obtained. Hence option (1).
Q83.
Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is :
- A. hepta-1,3-diene ✓
- B. hepta-1,4-diene
- C. hepta-1,5-diene
- D. hepta-1,6-diene
Solution: Conjugated double bonds alternate with single bonds; hepta-1,3-diene has C1=C2–C3=C4, a conjugated system.
Q84.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic KMnO₄ gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid. Statement-II : Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct ✓
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Oxidation gives p-nitrobenzoic acid (stronger than benzoic acid, –NO₂ withdrawing); reduction gives p-toluidine (more basic than aniline, –CH₃ donating). Both correct.
Q85.
The green paramagnetic species formed by heating KMnO₄ at 513 K is :
- A. K₂MnO₄ ✓
- B. Mn₃O₄
- C. MnO
- D. KO₂
Solution: 2KMnO₄ →(Δ) K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂. Potassium manganate K₂MnO₄ (Mn⁶⁺, d¹) is green and paramagnetic.
Q86.
Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option :
- A. On treating compound P with saturated NaHCO₃ solution, brisk effervescence is observed
- B. Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous AlCl₃ and CH₃COCl
- C. On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate
- D. P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on BaSO₄ ✓
Solution: Toluene with CrO₂Cl₂/CS₂ then H₃O⁺ (Étard reaction) gives benzaldehyde (P). Benzaldehyde is also made by Rosenmund reduction of benzoyl chloride (H₂, Pd–BaSO₄), so option 4 is correct. ⚠ Reaction drawn as structures — verify via the figure.
Q87.
A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is :
- A. [CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]Cl
- B. [CoCl(NH₃)₅]Cl₂
- C. [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ ✓
- D. [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₂)₃]
Solution: [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ ionises into [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ + 3Cl⁻ — one cation and three anions, a 1:3 electrolyte.
Q88.
Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (ψ_r) against distance (r) from the nucleus. The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is :
Solution: A radial node is a distance r (other than r = 0 or r → ∞) where the radial wavefunction ψ_r crosses zero and changes sign; the number of radial nodes equals the number of such zero-crossings. Graph A never crosses zero → 0 nodes (1s). Graph B crosses once → 1 node (2s). Graph C crosses the zero-axis twice (downward, then upward) → 2 radial nodes (3s). Graph D starts at zero at the nucleus and crosses once → 1 node (3p). The plot with two radial nodes is C — option (3).
Q89.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity : A. CH₃CH₂OCH₂CH₃, B. CH₃CH₂OH, C. CH₃COCH₃, D. CH₃COOH. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A < B < C < D
- B. C < A < B < D
- C. C < A < D < B
- D. A < C < B < D ✓
Solution: Polarity increases with the molecular dipole moment and hydrogen-bonding ability. A = CH₃CH₂OCH₂CH₃ (diethyl ether): only weakly polar C–O bonds, low dipole and no self hydrogen bonding → least polar. C = CH₃COCH₃ (acetone): a strongly polar C=O group (large dipole) but no O–H, so more polar than the ether yet less than an alcohol. B = CH₃CH₂OH (ethanol): the –OH group forms strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds → more polar than acetone. D = CH₃COOH (acetic acid): has both C=O and O–H and forms strong hydrogen-bonded dimers → most polar. Hence the increasing order is A < C < B < D — option (4).
Q90.
The highest occupied molecular orbital for Ne₂ is :
- A. π2p
- B. σ2p
- C. π*2p
- D. σ*2p ✓
Solution: Ne₂ has 2 × 10 = 20 electrons. For homonuclear diatomics with more than 14 electrons (O₂, F₂, Ne₂) the molecular-orbital energy order is σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz < (π2px = π2py) < (π*2px = π*2py) < σ*2pz. Filling 20 electrons occupies every orbital up to and including σ*2pz: σ1s² σ*1s² σ2s² σ*2s² σ2pz² π2p⁴ π*2p⁴ σ*2pz². The highest occupied molecular orbital is therefore σ*2p (σ*2pz) — option (4).
Q91.
The number of vertebrae in a human is :
Solution: The adult human vertebral column has 26 vertebrae (after fusion of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae).
Q92.
Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called :
- A. lichens ✓
- B. sponges
- C. mycorrhiza
- D. chrysophytes
Solution: A symbiotic association of a fungus and an alga is a lichen. (Mycorrhiza is fungus + plant roots.)
Q93.
Cell theory was formulated by :
- A. Schleiden and Schwann ✓
- B. Robert Brown
- C. Singer and Nicolson
- D. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
Solution: The cell theory was formulated by M. Schleiden (botanist) and T. Schwann (zoologist).
Q94.
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells ? (a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits (b) They can have plasmids (c) They contain mesosomes (d) They have peroxisomes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (b) and (c) only
- B. (a) and (c) only
- C. (a), (c) and (d) only
- D. (a), (b) and (c) only ✓
Solution: Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes (50S + 30S), can carry plasmids, and have mesosomes; peroxisomes are eukaryotic. So (a), (b) and (c).
Q95.
Which of the following is not a part of the human central neural system ?
- A. Arachnoid
- B. Dura mater
- C. Pia mater
- D. Pericardium ✓
Solution: Arachnoid, dura mater and pia mater are the meninges covering the CNS; the pericardium covers the heart, not the CNS.
Q96.
Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses :
- A. matrix ✓
- B. cytosol
- C. mucus
- D. aqueous humor
Solution: The inner mitochondrial membrane encloses the mitochondrial matrix.
Q97.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓
- C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
- D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Solution: Cristae → infoldings in mitochondria; Cisternae → disc-shaped sacs in the Golgi; Thylakoids → flat membrane sacs in the stroma of chloroplast; Phospholipid → cell membrane. Hence A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Q98.
The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as :
- A. chloroplast
- B. chromoplast ✓
- C. aleuroplast
- D. amyloplast
Solution: Chromoplasts store carotenoid pigments such as xanthophylls (and carotenes), giving yellow/orange/red colours.
Q99.
Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct ? (a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis (b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone (c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (d) It does not secrete prolactin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a) and (b) only
- B. (a), (b) and (c) only ✓
- C. (a) and (c) only
- D. (b) and (c) only
Solution: The pituitary has adeno- and neurohypophysis, and secretes FSH and MSH; it does secrete prolactin, so (d) is wrong. Hence (a), (b) and (c).
Q100.
Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCO is shown below : RuBP + O₂ → 3-Phosphoglycerate + X. Identify 'X' from the given options :
- A. Phosphoenolpyruvate
- B. 2-Phosphoglycolate ✓
- C. Oxaloacetate
- D. Malate
Solution: The oxygenation of RuBP by RuBisCO yields one 3-phosphoglycerate and one 2-phosphoglycolate.
Q101.
Mad cow disease is caused by :
- A. prions ✓
- B. viroids
- C. Aspergillus sp.
- D. Mycoplasma sp.
Solution: Mad cow disease (BSE) is caused by prions — infectious misfolded proteins.
Q102.
Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700) ?
- A. Chlorophyll b
- B. Chlorophyll a ✓
- C. Xanthophylls
- D. Carotenoids
Solution: The PS I reaction centre P700 is a special form of chlorophyll a absorbing at 700 nm.
Q103.
In water, frogs respire using :
- A. skin ✓
- B. buccal cavity
- C. lungs
- D. trachea
Solution: In water the frog respires through its moist skin (cutaneous respiration).
Q104.
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans ?
- A. Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
- B. Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal
- C. Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal ✓
- D. Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia
Solution: From thigh to ankle: Femur → Patella → Tibia → Tarsal.
Q105.
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of :
- A. leaves ✓
- B. flowers
- C. fruits
- D. sepals
Solution: Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem.
Q106.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III ✓
- C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
- D. A-I, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Solution: Starch → energy storage; Antibody → fights infection; Concanavalin A → lectin; Glut-4 → glucose transport. Hence A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
Q107.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Statement-II : In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect ✓
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Statement-I correctly defines radial symmetry. Echinoderm adults are radially symmetric but their larvae are bilaterally symmetric, so Statement-II is incorrect.
Q108.
Endomembrane system includes :
- A. endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole ✓
- B. endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
- C. mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
- D. Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
Solution: The endomembrane system comprises the ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles (mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes are excluded).
Q109.
How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose ?
- A. 206
- B. 309
- C. 103
- D. 412 ✓
Solution: Glycolysis gives 2 pyruvate per glucose, so 206 × 2 = 412.
Q110.
Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide ?
- A. 2,4-D ✓
- B. Kinetin
- C. Abscisic acid
- D. Gibberellin
Solution: 2,4-D (a synthetic auxin) is widely used as a herbicide to kill dicot weeds.
Q111.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia. Statement-II : In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct ✓
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: In gymnosperms the gametophytes are not free-living and stay within the sporangia, and the seeds are naked (uncovered). Both statements are correct.
Q112.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
- B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
- C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓
Solution: Spherical → Cocci; Rod → Bacilli; Comma → Vibrio; Spirillum → Spirilla. Hence A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Q113.
Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family ? (a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic (b) Calyx have five sepals and are united (c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous (d) Ovary is inferior. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a), (b) and (c) only ✓
- B. (b) only
- C. (a) and (b) only
- D. (b) and (c) only
Solution: Solanaceae flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic, calyx of five united sepals, androecium of five epipetalous stamens; the ovary is superior (not inferior), so (d) is wrong. Hence (a), (b) and (c).
Q114.
Select the correct sequence of events that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.
- A. Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b → production of glucose → release of oxygen → role of air
- B. Role of air → release of oxygen → production of glucose → absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b ✓
- C. Release of oxygen → production of glucose → absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b → role of air
- D. Production of glucose → release of oxygen → absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b → role of air
Solution: Historically: role of air (Priestley) → release of oxygen (Ingenhousz) → production of glucose (Sachs) → absorption/action spectra of chlorophyll (Engelmann). ⚠ Verify the intended sequence against the official key.
Q115.
The number of action potentials generated by sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human per minute is :
- A. 28-30
- B. 70-75 ✓
- C. 100-110
- D. 120-140
Solution: The SAN (pacemaker) fires about 70-75 times per minute, setting the normal heart rate.
Q116.
How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose ?
Solution: One glucose needs 6 turns of the Calvin cycle, so three glucose need 18 turns.
Q117.
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
- A. Blood coagulates in response to an injury
- B. Blood clot consists of fibrins
- C. Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
- D. Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin ✓
Solution: Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen (by thrombin), not the other way round, so statement 4 is incorrect.
Q118.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V, E-I
- B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV, E-V
- C. A-III, B-II, C-V, D-IV, E-I
- D. A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I ✓
Solution: For Mangifera: Family → Anacardiaceae; Genus → Mangifera; Class → Dicotyledonae; Phylum → Angiospermae; Order → Sapindales. Hence A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I.
Q119.
Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order : (a) Genus (b) Class (c) Order (d) Phylum (e) Family (f) Kingdom (g) Species. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f) ✓
- B. (a), (c), (e), (b), (d), (g), (f)
- C. (g), (c), (a), (b), (e), (d), (f)
- D. (g), (a), (c), (b), (e), (d), (f)
Solution: Ascending order means from the lowest (most specific) rank to the highest (most inclusive). The taxonomic hierarchy from lowest to highest is: Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom. Substituting the given labels (a = Genus, b = Class, c = Order, d = Phylum, e = Family, f = Kingdom, g = Species) gives g → a → e → c → b → d → f. Hence the sequence is (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f) — option (1).
Q120.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-IV, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
- C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
- D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III ✓
Solution: Marginal → Pea; Axile → Tomato; Parietal → Argemone; Free central → Primrose. Hence A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III.
Q121.
Sphenopsida class belongs to :
- A. bryophytes
- B. angiosperms
- C. gymnosperms
- D. pteridophytes ✓
Solution: Sphenopsida (horsetails, e.g. Equisetum) are pteridophytes.
Q122.
Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct ? (a) Do not occur in C3 plants (b) CO₂ is consumed and O₂ is generated (c) Phosphoglycolate is formed (d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a) and (d) only
- B. (c) and (d) only ✓
- C. (b) and (d) only
- D. (a) and (c) only
Solution: Photorespiration occurs in C3 plants, releases CO₂ and consumes O₂, forms phosphoglycolate (c) and produces no ATP/NADPH (d). So (c) and (d).
Q123.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum :
- A. has ribosomes attached to its surface
- B. is the major site for the synthesis of lipids ✓
- C. is actively involved in protein synthesis
- D. is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates
Solution: The SER lacks ribosomes and is the major site of lipid (and steroid) synthesis.
Q124.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
- A. α-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon
- B. δ-cells of pancreas secrete insulin ✓
- C. Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis
- D. β-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
Solution: δ-cells secrete somatostatin; insulin is secreted by β-cells. So statement 2 is incorrect.
Q125.
Genus represents :
- A. an individual plant or animal
- B. a population of plants and animals
- C. a group of closely related species ✓
- D. a group of closely related families
Solution: A genus is a group of closely related species.
Q126.
Which of the following is not a prokaryote ?
- A. Bacteria
- B. Blue green algae
- C. Mycoplasma
- D. Fungi ✓
Solution: Fungi are eukaryotes; bacteria, blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) and mycoplasma are prokaryotes.
Q127.
Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage ?
- A. Abscisic acid
- B. Gibberellin ✓
- C. Indole butyric acid
- D. Ethephon
Solution: Gibberellins cause bolting (internode elongation) in rosette plants such as cabbage prior to flowering.
Q128.
The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is :
- A. G1-G2-S-M
- B. G1-M-G2-S
- C. G1-S-G2-M ✓
- D. S-M-G2-G1
Solution: The cell cycle proceeds G1 → S → G2 → M.
Q129.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-II, B-III, C-I ✓
- B. A-II, B-I, C-III
- C. A-III, B-II, C-I
- D. A-III, B-I, C-II
Solution: Fusion of protoplasms → Plasmogamy; Fusion of two nuclei → Karyogamy; Generation of haploid spores → Meiosis. Hence A-II, B-III, C-I.
Q130.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion. Statement-II : All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect ✓
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Reptilia does mean creeping/crawling (Statement-I correct), but crocodiles have a four-chambered heart, so 'all have three-chambered heart' is incorrect.
Q131.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I. Statement-II : Meiosis I resembles mitosis. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect ✓
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Chromosomes are fully condensed by diakinesis (end of prophase I), so Statement-I is correct. It is Meiosis II (not Meiosis I) that resembles mitosis, so Statement-II is incorrect.
Q132.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates ?
- A. Presence of notochord
- B. Central nervous system is dorsal
- C. Presence of gills ✓
- D. Presence of post anal part
Solution: The fundamental chordate features are a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal gill slits and a post-anal tail; 'presence of gills' is not a defining chordate characteristic. ⚠ Verify the intended option.
Q133.
Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day ?
- A. 50 cm
- B. 170 cm
- C. 230 cm ✓
- D. 460 cm
Solution: Arithmetic growth is a constant linear increase: L_t = L₀ + (r × t), where L₀ is the initial length, r the growth rate and t the time. With L₀ = 20 cm, r = 30 cm/day and t = 7 days: L₇ = 20 + (30 × 7) = 20 + 210 = 230 cm — option (3).
Q134.
Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to the percentage weight of the human body : (a) Carbon (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (b), (a), (c), (d) ✓
- B. (c), (a), (b), (d)
- C. (b), (a), (d), (c)
- D. (a), (b), (c), (d)
Solution: By body weight: Oxygen (~65%) > Carbon (~18%) > Hydrogen (~10%) > Nitrogen (~3%): b, a, c, d.
Q135.
In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are :
Solution: The frog brain gives rise to 10 pairs of cranial nerves.
Q136.
Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?
- A. Streptokinase ✓
- B. Penicillin
- C. Cyclosporin A
- D. Statins
Solution: Streptokinase dissolves blood clots and is used as a clot buster (e.g. after myocardial infarction).
Q137.
The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut :
- A. due to alkaline pH ✓
- B. due to acidic pH
- C. by proteases
- D. by nucleases
Solution: The inactive Bt protoxin is solubilised and activated in the alkaline pH of the insect gut.
Q138.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement-II : Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect ✓
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Down's syndrome is trisomy 21 (an extra chromosome) and Turner's syndrome is 45,X0 (a missing X). Both statements are incorrect.
Q139.
Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Tuberculosis ✓
- C. Gonorrhoea
- D. Genital warts
Solution: Tuberculosis is an airborne bacterial disease, not a sexually transmitted infection.
Q140.
Sperm motility is due to :
- A. flagellar movement ✓
- B. ciliary movement
- C. amoeboid movement
- D. muscular movement
Solution: The sperm tail is a flagellum; its beating provides sperm motility.
Q141.
Natural selection can lead to : (a) stabilisation (b) genetic drift (c) directional change (d) disruption. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a) only
- B. (a), (c) and (d) only ✓
- C. (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
- D. (a) and (c) only
Solution: Natural selection can be stabilising, directional or disruptive; genetic drift is not natural selection. So (a), (c) and (d).
Q142.
The method of directly injecting sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :
- A. Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
- B. Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
- C. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) ✓
- D. Embryo transfer (ET)
Solution: Directly injecting a sperm into the ovum is Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI).
Q143.
Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system ?
- A. Rete testis
- B. Epididymis
- C. Vasa efferentia
- D. Infundibulum ✓
Solution: The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped part of the female fallopian tube, not a male structure.
Q144.
Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest : (a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)
- B. (d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e) ✓
- C. (e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)
- D. (b) > (a) > (c) > (d) > (e)
Solution: By approximate species counts in the Amazon rainforest: Invertebrates (>125,000) > Plants (>40,000) > Fishes (~3,000) > Birds (~1,300) > Mammals (~427). With the given labels (a = Plants, b = Birds, c = Fishes, d = Invertebrates, e = Mammals), the descending order is d > a > c > b > e — option (2).
Q145.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement-II : Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transforms into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect ✓
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: The LH surge ruptures the Graafian follicle to cause ovulation (Statement-I correct). The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, not estrogen, so Statement-II is incorrect.
Q146.
Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?
- A. Parasites
- B. Predators
- C. Herbivores ✓
- D. Carnivores
Solution: Primary consumers feed on producers, i.e. herbivores.
Q147.
A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is :
- A. 0.01 ✓
- B. 0.02
- C. 0.10
- D. 0.99
Solution: Frequency of AA = p² = (0.1)² = 0.01.
Q148.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- B. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓
- C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Solution: Excess growth → Acromegaly; Luteinizing hormone → Ovulation; Vasopressin → reabsorption of water/electrolytes in kidney; Oxytocin → contraction of uterus during childbirth. Hence A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
Q149.
The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by :
- A. bicuspid valve
- B. tricuspid valve ✓
- C. semilunar valve
- D. sino-atrial node
Solution: The right atrioventricular opening is guarded by the tricuspid valve.
Q150.
Sponges exchange O₂ with CO₂ by :
- A. simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces ✓
- B. moist cuticle
- C. tracheal tubes
- D. gills
Solution: Sponges have no specialised respiratory organs; gases are exchanged by simple diffusion over the body surface.
Q151.
How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?
Solution: ⚠ Terminology is ambiguous (a typical anther is bilobed/dithecous with 2 microsporangia per lobe) — verify the intended count against the official key.
Q152.
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent from the central nervous system by the release of :
- A. acetyl choline ✓
- B. acetyl coenzyme A
- C. cyclic guanine monophosphate
- D. cyclic adenine monophosphate
Solution: Acetylcholine released at the neuromuscular junction initiates muscle contraction.
Q153.
Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?
- A. Gene i is constitutively expressed ✓
- B. Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
- C. Genes i, z, y and a share a single common promoter
- D. Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
Solution: The regulatory gene i is expressed constitutively (always). Lactose/allolactose inactivates the repressor; i has its own promoter; and the inducer is allolactose, not galactose.
Q154.
Which of the following in the female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the egg ?
- A. Antipodals
- B. Synergids ✓
- C. Central cells
- D. Polar nuclei
Solution: The synergids (with their filiform apparatus) guide the pollen tube into the embryo sac.
Q155.
Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?
- A. Wheat
- B. Maize
- C. Barley
- D. Pea ✓
Solution: Pea seeds are non-albuminous (non-endospermic); wheat, maize and barley are albuminous (endospermic).
Q156.
If the diploid chromosome number is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?
Solution: Endosperm is triploid (3n). With 2n = 36, n = 18, so 3n = 54.
Q157.
Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct ? (a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes (b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop (c) Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water takes place in Henle's loop (d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a) and (b) only
- B. (b), (c) and (d) only
- C. (a), (b) and (d) only
- D. (a), (b), (c) and (d) only ✓
Solution: The descending limb is permeable to water (a), the ascending limb transports electrolytes (d), Na⁺/water are reabsorbed in the loop (c), and the filtrate is concentrated via the loop (b). ⚠ Verify the intended correct set.
Q158.
Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of the vertebrae in the vertebral column from the head to toe ?
- A. Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
- B. Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
- C. Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
- D. Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum ✓
Solution: From head to toe: cervical → thoracic → lumbar → sacrum.
Q159.
Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?
- A. Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
- B. Paleontological evidence from fossil records
- C. Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel ✓
- D. Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
Solution: Haeckel's embryological 'recapitulation' support was disproved (by von Baer), so it is not valid evidence for evolution. ⚠ Verify the intended option.
Q160.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement-II : Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct ✓
Solution: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Africa (not Australia), so Statement-I is incorrect; the 75,000–10,000-years figure (NCERT) makes Statement-II correct.
Q161.
Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate is 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate is 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is :
- A. 1 million
- B. 5 million
- C. 10 million ✓
- D. 100 million
Solution: Birth rate equals death rate, so the net growth rate is zero and the population stays at 10 million.
Q162.
During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.
- A. denaturation
- B. extension
- C. annealing ✓
- D. ligation
Solution: Primers anneal (bind) to the single-stranded template during the annealing step of PCR.
Q163.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R : Resources are finite. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
- B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- C. A is correct but R is incorrect
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: Because resources are finite (carrying capacity), logistic growth is more realistic than exponential growth — so both are correct and R explains A.
Q164.
Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distinct species is an example of :
- A. divergent evolution
- B. convergent evolution ✓
- C. founder effect
- D. genetic drift
Solution: Adaptive radiation within a single lineage (e.g. only the Australian marsupials) is divergent evolution. But here we compare two different, separately evolved groups — placental mammals and Australian marsupials — from completely separate ancestral lines that independently evolved remarkably similar forms (for example, the placental mole and the marsupial mole) because they adapted to similar ecological niches. Similar traits arising in distinct, distantly related lineages is convergent evolution — option (2). (Divergent evolution = closely related species diverging, e.g. Darwin's finches; the founder effect and genetic drift are random changes in allele frequencies, not relevant here.)
Q165.
Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs ? (a) Tonsils (b) Bone marrow (c) Spleen (d) Thymus. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a) and (b) only
- B. (a) and (c) only ✓
- C. (b) and (d) only
- D. (a) and (d) only
Solution: Secondary lymphoid organs include the tonsils and spleen; bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid organs. So (a) and (c).
Q166.
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?
- A. hCG
- B. Estrogen
- C. Progesterone
- D. LH ✓
Solution: The placenta secretes hCG, estrogen and progesterone (and hPL); LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
Q167.
Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?
- A. RNA polymerase I
- B. RNA polymerase II ✓
- C. RNA polymerase III
- D. DNA polymerase
Solution: Precursor mRNA (hnRNA) is synthesised by RNA polymerase II.
Q168.
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement-II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct ✓
- B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
- C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: Plasmids are small, extrachromosomal, autonomously replicating circular DNA. Both statements are correct.
Q169.
For a person with blood group O, which of the following is not a possible combination of the parents' blood group genotypes ?
- A. (1) ✓
- B. (2)
- C. (3)
- D. (4)
Solution: ⚠ The blood-group genotype options were not legible on the scan — please verify the question and options against the official key.
Q170.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous. Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
- B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- C. A is true but R is false
- D. A is false but R is true
Solution: Forelimbs of humans and bats are homologous (same basic anatomical structure, different functions), and this similar structure is the reason — so both are true and R explains A.
Q171.
Colostrum, secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation, is abundant in :
- A. IgG
- B. IgM
- C. IgA ✓
- D. IgD
Solution: Colostrum is rich in IgA antibodies, providing passive immunity to the newborn.
Q172.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced. Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than the Abingdon tortoise. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
- B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- C. A is correct but R is incorrect
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: Introduced goats outcompeted (browsed more efficiently than) the Abingdon tortoise, driving it extinct — so both are correct and R explains A.
Q173.
The covering of ovum at ovulation is :
- A. endometrium
- B. zona radiata
- C. zona pellucida ✓
- D. chorion
Solution: At ovulation the secondary oocyte (ovum) is surrounded by the zona pellucida (with the corona radiata of cells outside it).
Q174.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
- D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV ✓
Solution: Both harmed → Competition; one harmed, other benefited → Predation; both benefited → Mutualism; one benefited, other unaffected → Commensalism. Hence A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.
Q175.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall, with none being dwarf. Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
- B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- C. A is correct but R is not correct
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: All F1 plants are tall because tall is dominant over dwarf — so both are correct and R explains A.
Q176.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is for plant cells. Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
- A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
- B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
- C. A is correct but R is not correct
- D. A is not correct but R is correct
Solution: Lysozyme breaks bacterial walls and cellulase breaks plant cell walls; cell disruption is needed to release the genetic material — so both are correct and R explains A.
Q177.
Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?
- A. Interferon
- B. Antibiotics
- C. Morphine ✓
- D. Anti-retroviral drugs
Solution: Morphine is an opioid used as a sedative and analgesic (painkiller).
Q178.
Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. (a), (b) and (c)
- B. (a) and (b) only ✓
- C. (a) and (c) only
- D. (b) and (c) only
Solution: Energy flow is unidirectional (a) and the energy pyramid is always upright/never inverted (b). Energy transfer follows the 10% law, not the 1% law, so (c) is wrong. Hence (a) and (b) only.
Q179.
Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?
- A. Reproduces sexually in liver cells
- B. Reproduces sexually in RBCs
- C. Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
- D. Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut ✓
Solution: In Plasmodium, the gametes fuse and fertilization (and subsequent development) occurs in the mosquito gut; asexual reproduction occurs in human liver cells and RBCs.
Q180.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III ✓
- B. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
- D. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Solution: Transformation → transfer of DNA to host bacteria; Cloning site → restriction enzyme; Selection → antibiotic resistance; Ori → replication. Hence A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.