NEET (UG) 2024 — Code S6 — Answer Key & Solutions

Not yet confirmed against the official key.

Free, login-free worked solutions to every question in NEET (UG) 2024 — Code S6. Check your answers below, then predict your rank or practise with full mock tests.

Q1.

Match List I with List II. List I (Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from): A. $n_2 = 3$ to $n_1 = 2$ B. $n_2 = 4$ to $n_1 = 2$ C. $n_2 = 5$ to $n_1 = 2$ D. $n_2 = 6$ to $n_1 = 2$ List II (Wavelengths (nm)): I. 410.2 II. 434.1 III. 656.3 IV. 486.1 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I ✓
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Since $\Delta E = \dfrac{hc}{\lambda}$, the wavelength $\lambda \propto \dfrac{1}{\Delta E}$. The energy gap to $n_1 = 2$ grows as $n_2$ rises, so $\lambda_{3\to2} > \lambda_{4\to2} > \lambda_{5\to2} > \lambda_{6\to2}$. ∴ A ($3\to2$) is 656.3 nm, B ($4\to2$) is 486.1 nm, C ($5\to2$) is 434.1 nm and D ($6\to2$) is 410.2 nm.

Q2.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Material): A. Diamagnetic B. Ferromagnetic C. Paramagnetic D. Non-magnetic List-II (Susceptibility ($\chi$)): I. $\chi = 0$ II. $0 > \chi \geq -1$ III. $\chi \gg 1$ IV. $0 < \chi < \varepsilon$ (a small positive number) Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I ✓
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Solution: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I Diamagnetic substances are weakly repelled, so $\chi$ is small and negative, $-1 \le \chi < 0$ (A-II). Ferromagnetic substances are strongly magnetised, so $\chi \gg 1$ (B-III). Paramagnetic substances are weakly attracted, so $\chi$ is small and positive, $0 < \chi < \varepsilon$ (C-IV). A non-magnetic material is not magnetised at all, so $\chi = 0$ (D-I).

Q3.

In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is $9.8 \times 10^{-6}$ kg m$^{2}$. If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is $x \times 10^{-5}$ Am$^{2}$, then the value of '$x$' is :

  • A. $1280\pi^{2}$ ✓
  • B. $5\pi^{2}$
  • C. $128\pi^{2}$
  • D. $50\pi^{2}$

Solution: $x = 1280\pi^{2}$ Time period of a magnetic needle in a uniform field: $T = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{I}{mB}}$, so $m = \dfrac{4\pi^{2}I}{T^{2}B}$. Time period $T = \dfrac{5}{20} = \dfrac{1}{4}$ s $m = \dfrac{4\pi^{2} \times 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \times 16}{0.049} = 12.8\pi^{2} \times 10^{-3}\ \text{A m}^{2}$ $\therefore\ m = 1280\pi^{2} \times 10^{-5}\ \text{A m}^{2}$, so $x = 1280\pi^{2}$.

Q4.

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then

  • A. The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised. ✓
  • B. The reflected light will be partially polarised.
  • C. The refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • D. Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.

Solution: Reflected light completely polarised, refracted light partially polarised At Brewster's angle the reflected light is completely plane polarised, while the refracted light keeps both components, unequally, so it is only partially polarised. (B) The reflected light is completely polarised, not partially. (C) The refracted light is only partially polarised. (D) Only the reflected light is completely polarised; the refracted light is partially polarised.

Q5.

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer. The graph referred to has current $I$ on the vertical axis and voltage $V$ on the horizontal axis, with the quadrants labelled (I) top right, (II) top left, (III) bottom left and (IV) bottom right. A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph. B. In a reverse biased $pn$ junction diode, the current measured in ($\mu$A), is due to majority charge carriers.

  • A. Both A and B are incorrect
  • B. A is correct but B is incorrect ✓
  • C. A is incorrect but B is correct
  • D. Both A and B are correct

Solution: A is correct but B is incorrect A: A solar cell's I–V curve runs from $V_{oc}$ on the voltage axis to $I_{sc}$ on the negative current axis, so it lies in the fourth quadrant; A is correct. B: The small reverse current (in $\mu$A) of a reverse-biased pn junction is due to minority carriers, not majority carriers; B is incorrect.

Q6.

A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point $P$ with the angle of incidence $30^{\circ}$ as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base $BC$ and emerges along the face $AC$. The refractive index of the prism is:

  • A. $\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
  • B. $\dfrac{\sqrt{5}}{4}$
  • C. $\dfrac{\sqrt{5}}{2}$ ✓
  • D. $\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{4}$

Solution: $\mu = \dfrac{\sqrt{5}}{2}$ The ray emerges along face $AC$, so it meets $AC$ at the critical angle $c$, where $\sin c = \dfrac{1}{\mu}$. With prism angle $A = 90^{\circ}$, $r_1 + c = 90^{\circ}$, so $r_1 = 90^{\circ} - c$. Snell's law at $P$: $\sin 30^{\circ} = \mu\sin r_1 = \mu\cos c = \sqrt{\mu^{2} - 1}$ $\dfrac{1}{4} = \mu^{2} - 1 \Rightarrow \mu^{2} = \dfrac{5}{4}$ $\therefore\ \mu = \dfrac{\sqrt{5}}{2}$

Q7.

A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:

  • A. Varying velocity and varying acceleration ✓
  • B. Constant velocity
  • C. Constant acceleration
  • D. Constant velocity but varying acceleration

Solution: Varying velocity and varying acceleration The speed is constant, but the direction of the velocity and of the centripetal acceleration changes continuously, so both vary.

Q8.

The graph which shows the variation of $\left(\dfrac{1}{\lambda^{2}}\right)$ and its kinetic energy, $E$ is (where $\lambda$ is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):

  • A. A straight line through the origin, rising with $E$ ✓
  • B. A curve through the origin that bends upward (concave up), rising with $E$
  • C. A curve falling from high values and decaying towards the $E$ axis
  • D. A curve through the origin that bends over and saturates

Solution: A straight line through the origin, rising with $E$ de Broglie wavelength $\lambda = \dfrac{h}{p} = \dfrac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}}$ $\dfrac{1}{\lambda^{2}} = \dfrac{2m}{h^{2}}E$, so $\dfrac{1}{\lambda^{2}} \propto E$. ∴ The graph is a straight line through the origin.

Q9.

A wire of length '$l$' and resistance 100 $\Omega$ is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

  • A. 60 $\Omega$
  • B. 26 $\Omega$
  • C. 52 $\Omega$ ✓
  • D. 55 $\Omega$

Solution: $52\ \Omega$ Each of the 10 equal parts has resistance $\dfrac{100}{10} = 10\ \Omega$. Five parts in series: $R_s = 5 \times 10 = 50\ \Omega$ Five parts in parallel: $R_p = \dfrac{10}{5} = 2\ \Omega$ $\therefore\ R = R_s + R_p = 50 + 2 = 52\ \Omega$

Q10.

The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm$^{2}$. The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:

  • A. 72.0 cm
  • B. 8.5 cm ✓
  • C. 17.5 cm
  • D. 20.7 cm

Solution: 8.5 cm Moment of inertia of a thin rod about a perpendicular axis through its mid-point: $I = \dfrac{Ml^{2}}{12}$ $2400 = \dfrac{400\,l^{2}}{12} \Rightarrow l^{2} = 72\ \text{cm}^{2}$ $\therefore\ l = \sqrt{72} \approx 8.5\ \text{cm}$

Q11.

The output ($Y$) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a

  • A. AND gate ✓
  • B. NAND gate
  • C. NOR gate
  • D. OR gate

Solution: AND gate Input $A$ goes to both terminals of a NAND gate: $Y_1 = \overline{A \cdot A} = \overline{A}$ Input $B$ goes to both terminals of a NOR gate: $Y_2 = \overline{B + B} = \overline{B}$ $Y_1$ and $Y_2$ feed a NOR gate: $Y = \overline{\overline{A} + \overline{B}}$ By De Morgan's theorem, $Y = \overline{\overline{A}} \cdot \overline{\overline{B}} = A \cdot B$, the output of an AND gate.

Q12.

In a vernier callipers, ($N$ + 1) divisions of vernier scale coincide with $N$ divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:

  • A. $10(N + 1)$
  • B. $\dfrac{1}{10N}$
  • C. $\dfrac{1}{100(N + 1)}$ ✓
  • D. $100N$

Solution: $\dfrac{1}{100(N+1)}$ cm Vernier constant = 1 MSD − 1 VSD $(N+1)\ \text{VSD} = N\ \text{MSD} \Rightarrow 1\ \text{VSD} = \dfrac{N}{N+1}\ \text{MSD}$ Vernier constant $= \left(1 - \dfrac{N}{N+1}\right)\text{MSD} = \dfrac{1}{N+1}\ \text{MSD}$ With 1 MSD = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm, vernier constant $= \dfrac{0.01}{N+1} = \dfrac{1}{100(N+1)}$ cm.

Q13.

At any instant of time $t$, the displacement of any particle is given by $2t - 1$ (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

  • A. 6
  • B. 10 ✓
  • C. 5
  • D. 7

Solution: 10 W Velocity $v = \dfrac{dx}{dt} = \dfrac{d}{dt}(2t - 1) = 2\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ Instantaneous power $P = Fv = 5 \times 2 = 10\ \text{W}$

Q14.

A thin spherical shell of radius $R = 3$ cm carries a charge $q = 1\ \mu$C. The potential difference between the centre $C$ of the shell and a point $P$ lying on the shell (in V) is: (Take $\dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^{9}$ SI units)

  • A. Zero ✓
  • B. $3 \times 10^{5}$
  • C. $1 \times 10^{5}$
  • D. $0.5 \times 10^{5}$

Solution: Zero Inside a charged spherical shell the field is zero, so the potential everywhere inside equals that on the shell, $V = \dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\dfrac{q}{R}$. $\therefore\ V_C - V_P = 0$

Q15.

A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N m$^{-1}$, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is

  • A. 99 N
  • B. 19.8 mN ✓
  • C. 198 N
  • D. 1.98 mN

Solution: 19.8 mN Surface tension acts along the rim of the disc, so excess force $F = T \times 2\pi R$. $F = 0.07 \times 2 \times 3.14 \times 0.045\ \text{N} = 1.98 \times 10^{-2}\ \text{N}$ $\therefore\ F \approx 19.8\ \text{mN}$

Q16.

A logic circuit provides the output $Y$ as per the following truth table : $A = 0$, $B = 0$ gives $Y = 1$ $A = 0$, $B = 1$ gives $Y = 0$ $A = 1$, $B = 0$ gives $Y = 1$ $A = 1$, $B = 1$ gives $Y = 0$ The expression for the output $Y$ is :

  • A. $B$
  • B. $AB + \overline{A}$
  • C. $A\overline{B} + \overline{A}$
  • D. $\overline{B}$ ✓

Solution: $Y = \overline{B}$ $Y = 1$ whenever $B = 0$ and $Y = 0$ whenever $B = 1$, whatever the value of $A$. $\therefore\ Y = \overline{B}$

Q17.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The potential ($V$) at any axial point, at 2 m distance ($r$) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector $\vec{P}$ of magnitude, $4 \times 10^{-6}$ C m, is $\pm 9 \times 10^{3}$ V. (Take $\dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^{9}$ SI units) Reason R: $V = \pm \dfrac{2P}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r^{2}}$, where $r$ is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A is false but R is true.
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • C. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • D. A is true but R is false. ✓

Solution: A is true but R is false Potential at an axial point of a dipole: $V = \pm\dfrac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\dfrac{p}{r^{2}}$, the sign depending on the side. $V = \pm\dfrac{9 \times 10^{9} \times 4 \times 10^{-6}}{2^{2}} = \pm 9 \times 10^{3}\ \text{V}$, so A is true. The potential has no factor 2 (that belongs to the axial field, $\dfrac{2p}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r^{3}}$), so R is false.

Q18.

The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1 $\Omega$, when connected through an external resistance of 4 $\Omega$ as shown in the figure is:

  • A. 10 V
  • B. 4 V
  • C. 6 V
  • D. 8 V ✓

Solution: 8 V Current $I = \dfrac{E}{R + r} = \dfrac{10}{4 + 1} = 2\ \text{A}$ Terminal voltage $V = E - Ir = 10 - 2 \times 1 = 8\ \text{V}$

Q19.

In the given diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

  • A. $BA$ and $DC$
  • B. $AB$ and $DC$ ✓
  • C. $BA$ and $CD$
  • D. $AB$ and $CD$

Solution: $AB$ and $DC$ By Lenz's law, the induced current opposes the motion of the magnet. The north pole moves away from solenoid-1, so its end $B$ facing the magnet becomes a south pole, attracting the magnet back. The south pole approaches solenoid-2, so its end $C$ facing the magnet becomes a south pole, repelling the magnet. The current that makes these poles flows through $AB$ in solenoid-1 and through $DC$ in solenoid-2.

Q20.

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is $\dfrac{N_P}{N_S} = \dfrac{1}{2}$. The ratio $V_S : V_P$ is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning) :

  • A. 1 : 4
  • B. 1 : 2
  • C. 2 : 1 ✓
  • D. 1 : 1

Solution: 2 : 1 For an ideal transformer $\dfrac{V_S}{V_P} = \dfrac{N_S}{N_P} = \dfrac{2}{1}$, so $V_S : V_P = 2 : 1$.

Q21.

A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as $4\pi \times 10^{-7}$ SI units):

  • A. 44 T
  • B. 44 mT
  • C. 4.4 T
  • D. 4.4 mT ✓

Solution: 4.4 mT Field at the centre of a circular coil of $N$ turns: $B = \dfrac{\mu_0 NI}{2R}$ $B = \dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 100 \times 7}{2 \times 0.1} = 4.4 \times 10^{-3}\ \text{T}$ $\therefore\ B = 4.4\ \text{mT}$

Q22.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges. Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect ✓

Solution: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I: an atom has equal amounts of positive and negative charge, so it is electrically neutral; I is correct. Statement II: atoms of most elements, not each element, are stable; radioactive atoms are not, so II is incorrect.

Q23.

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

  • A. angular speed and stress
  • B. strain and angle ✓
  • C. stress and angle
  • D. strain and arc

Solution: Strain and angle Solid angle $\Omega = \dfrac{A}{r^{2}}$ is a ratio of like quantities, so it is dimensionless, $[\text{M}^{0}\text{L}^{0}\text{T}^{0}]$. Strain $= \dfrac{\Delta l}{l}$ and angle $= \dfrac{\text{arc}}{\text{radius}}$ are also dimensionless. Stress $[\text{ML}^{-1}\text{T}^{-2}]$, angular speed $[\text{T}^{-1}]$ and arc $[\text{L}]$ are not dimensionless.

Q24.

If $c$ is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are: A. The energy of a photon is $E = h\nu$. B. The velocity of a photon is $c$. C. The momentum of a photon, $p = \dfrac{h\nu}{c}$. D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved. E. Photon possesses positive charge. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A, B, D and E only
  • B. A and B only
  • C. A, B, C and D only ✓
  • D. A, C and D only

Solution: A, B, C and D only A photon has energy $E = h\nu$, moves with speed $c$ and has momentum $p = \dfrac{h}{\lambda} = \dfrac{h\nu}{c}$, so A, B and C are correct. In a photon–electron collision total energy and total momentum are both conserved, so D is correct. A photon is electrically neutral, so E is wrong.

Q25.

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of $\omega$ rpm. The tension in the string is $T$. If speed becomes $2\omega$ while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

  • A. $\sqrt{2}T$
  • B. $T$
  • C. $4T$ ✓
  • D. $\dfrac{T}{4}$

Solution: $4T$ The tension provides the centripetal force: $T = m\omega^{2}l$, so $T \propto \omega^{2}$ at fixed radius. $T' = m(2\omega)^{2}l = 4m\omega^{2}l$ $\therefore\ T' = 4T$

Q26.

If $x = 5\sin\left(\pi t + \dfrac{\pi}{3}\right)$ m represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are

  • A. 5 m, 1 s
  • B. 5 cm, 2 s
  • C. 5 m, 2 s ✓
  • D. 5 cm, 1 s

Solution: 5 m, 2 s Comparing with $x = A\sin(\omega t + \phi)$: amplitude $A = 5$ m and $\omega = \pi\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$. Time period $T = \dfrac{2\pi}{\omega} = \dfrac{2\pi}{\pi} = 2\ \text{s}$

Q27.

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle $abcda$, whose $P$-$V$ diagram has $a$ at (100 cm$^{3}$, 100 kPa), $b$ at (400 cm$^{3}$, 100 kPa), $c$ at (400 cm$^{3}$, 300 kPa) and $d$ at (100 cm$^{3}$, 300 kPa). The work done by the gas along the path $bc$ is:

  • A. $-60$ J
  • B. Zero ✓
  • C. 30 J
  • D. $-90$ J

Solution: Zero Along $bc$ the volume stays at 400 cm³, so the process is isochoric. $W = \int P\,dV = 0$, since $dV = 0$.

Q28.

$$^{290}_{82}X \xrightarrow{\ \alpha\ } Y \xrightarrow{\ e^{+}\ } Z \xrightarrow{\ \beta^{-}\ } P \xrightarrow{\ e^{-}\ } Q$$ In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product $Q$ respectively, are

  • A. 286, 81 ✓
  • B. 280, 81
  • C. 286, 80
  • D. 288, 82

Solution: 286, 81 $\alpha$ emission lowers the mass number by 4 and the atomic number by 2: ${}^{290}_{82}X \to {}^{286}_{80}Y$ Positron ($e^{+}$) emission lowers the atomic number by 1: $Y \to {}^{286}_{79}Z$ $\beta^{-}$ emission raises the atomic number by 1: $Z \to {}^{286}_{80}P$ Emission of an electron ($e^{-}$, the same as a $\beta^{-}$ particle) raises it by 1 again: $P \to {}^{286}_{81}Q$ ∴ Mass number 286 and atomic number 81.

Q29.

Two bodies $A$ and $B$ of same mass undergo completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body $A$ moves with velocity $v_1$ while body $B$ is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is $v_2$. The ratio $v_1 : v_2$ is

  • A. 1 : 4
  • B. 1 : 2
  • C. 2 : 1 ✓
  • D. 4 : 1

Solution: 2 : 1 In a completely inelastic collision the two bodies move off together, and linear momentum is conserved. $mv_1 + 0 = (m + m)v_2 \Rightarrow v_1 = 2v_2$ $\therefore\ v_1 : v_2 = 2 : 1$

Q30.

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal $A$ and terminal $B$ is : The network is a bridge of five 2 $\mu$F capacitors: two in series along the upper arm from $A$ to $B$, two in series along the lower arm from $A$ to $B$, and the fifth bridging the two midpoints.

  • A. 4 $\mu$F
  • B. 2 $\mu$F ✓
  • C. 1 $\mu$F
  • D. 0.5 $\mu$F

Solution: $2\ \mu\text{F}$ All four arm capacitors are equal, so the bridge is balanced and the middle capacitor carries no charge; it can be removed. Each arm has two 2 μF capacitors in series: $\dfrac{2 \times 2}{2 + 2} = 1\ \mu\text{F}$ The two arms are in parallel: $C_{AB} = 1 + 1 = 2\ \mu\text{F}$

Q31.

A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block $A$ as shown in figure. The mass of blocks $A$ and $B$ are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block $A$ on block $B$ is :

  • A. 10 N
  • B. Zero
  • C. 4 N
  • D. 6 N ✓

Solution: 6 N Both blocks move together: $a = \dfrac{F}{m_A + m_B} = \dfrac{10}{2 + 3} = 2\ \text{m s}^{-2}$ The only horizontal force on $B$ is the push from $A$: $F_{AB} = m_B a = 3 \times 2 = 6\ \text{N}$

Q32.

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is $v$ in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct ($P$ and $Q$ are the highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?

  • A. Point $P$ has zero speed
  • B. Point $P$ moves slower than point $Q$
  • C. Point $P$ moves faster than point $Q$ ✓
  • D. Both the points $P$ and $Q$ move with equal speed

Solution: Point $P$ moves faster than point $Q$ In rolling without slipping the lowest point $Q$ is momentarily at rest, while the top point $P$ moves at $v + v = 2v$, so $P$ moves faster than $Q$. (A) Point $P$ moves at $2v$, not zero. (B) $P$ moves faster, not slower, than $Q$. (D) Their speeds are $2v$ and zero, not equal.

Q33.

The mass of a planet is $\dfrac{1}{10}^{\text{th}}$ that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

  • A. 3.92 m s$^{-2}$ ✓
  • B. 19.6 m s$^{-2}$
  • C. 9.8 m s$^{-2}$
  • D. 4.9 m s$^{-2}$

Solution: $3.92\ \text{m s}^{-2}$ Acceleration due to gravity $g = \dfrac{GM}{R^{2}}$, so $\dfrac{g_p}{g_e} = \dfrac{M_p}{M_e}\left(\dfrac{R_e}{R_p}\right)^{2}$. $\dfrac{g_p}{g_e} = \dfrac{1}{10} \times 2^{2} = 0.4$ $\therefore\ g_p = 0.4 \times 9.8 = 3.92\ \text{m s}^{-2}$

Q34.

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are $8 \times 10^{8}$ N m$^{-2}$ and $2 \times 10^{11}$ N m$^{-2}$, is:

  • A. 8 mm
  • B. 4 mm ✓
  • C. 0.4 mm
  • D. 40 mm

Solution: 4 mm Elongation is greatest when the stress equals the elastic limit. Maximum elongation $\Delta L = \dfrac{\text{stress} \times L}{Y} = \dfrac{8 \times 10^{8} \times 1}{2 \times 10^{11}} = 4 \times 10^{-3}\ \text{m}$ $\therefore\ \Delta L = 4\ \text{mm}$

Q35.

If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then

  • A. All bright fringes will be of equal width
  • B. Interference pattern will disappear
  • C. There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
  • D. There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes ✓

Solution: A central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes At the centre the path difference is zero for every wavelength, so the central fringe is bright white; since $\beta = \dfrac{\lambda D}{d}$ differs with colour, the fringes near it are coloured. (A) Fringe width $\beta \propto \lambda$, so fringes of different colours have different widths. (B) Interference still takes place; only a few fringes are seen before the colours overlap. (C) The central fringe is bright white, not dark.

Q36.

A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:

  • A. 32
  • B. 34
  • C. 28 ✓
  • D. 17

Solution: 28 Magnifying power of a telescope for a distant object: $m = \dfrac{f_o}{f_e} = \dfrac{140}{5} = 28$

Q37.

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then A. the charge stored in it, increases. B. the energy stored in it, decreases. C. its capacitance increases. D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same. E. the product of charge and voltage increases. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. A, B and C only
  • B. A, B and E only
  • C. A, C and E only ✓
  • D. B, D and E only

Solution: A, C and E only Connected to the battery, $V$ stays constant, while $C = \dfrac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d}$ increases as $d$ decreases, so C is correct. Charge $Q = CV$ increases, so A is correct, and $QV = CV^{2}$ increases, so E is correct. Energy $U = \dfrac{1}{2}CV^{2}$ increases, so B is wrong. $\dfrac{Q}{V} = C$ changes, so D is wrong.

Q38.

A 10 $\mu$F capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly ($\pi$ = 3.14):

  • A. 0.35 A
  • B. 0.58 A
  • C. 0.93 A ✓
  • D. 1.20 A

Solution: 0.93 A Capacitive reactance $X_C = \dfrac{1}{2\pi fC} = \dfrac{1}{2 \times 3.14 \times 50 \times 10 \times 10^{-6}} = \dfrac{1000}{3.14}\ \Omega \approx 318\ \Omega$ rms current $I_{\text{rms}} = \dfrac{V_{\text{rms}}}{X_C} = \dfrac{210 \times 3.14}{1000} \approx 0.66\ \text{A}$ $\therefore\ I_0 = \sqrt{2}\,I_{\text{rms}} = 1.414 \times 0.66 \approx 0.93\ \text{A}$

Q39.

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.

  • A. Circuit (1)
  • B. Circuit (2) ✓
  • C. Circuit (3)
  • D. Circuit (4)

Solution: Circuit (2) In circuit (2) the balance condition is $\dfrac{10}{15} = \dfrac{10}{5 + R_D}$, which needs $R_D = 10\ \Omega$. A conducting diode has a dynamic resistance, so it can take the value $R_D = 10\ \Omega$ and the bridge balances.

Q40.

Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

  • A. 2 : 3
  • B. 1 : 1
  • C. 2 : 9 ✓
  • D. 1 : 2

Solution: 2 : 9 Power $P = \dfrac{V^{2}}{R}$, so $R \propto \dfrac{1}{P}$ and $R_A = 2R_B$. Series: $P_s = \dfrac{V^{2}}{R_A + R_B} = \dfrac{V^{2}}{3R_B}$ Parallel: $P_p = \dfrac{V^{2}}{2R_B} + \dfrac{V^{2}}{R_B} = \dfrac{3V^{2}}{2R_B}$ $\therefore\ \dfrac{P_s}{P_p} = \dfrac{1/3}{3/2} = \dfrac{2}{9}$

Q41.

The velocity ($v$) – time ($t$) plot of the motion of a body is a trapezium: the velocity rises linearly from zero, then stays constant, then falls linearly back to zero. The acceleration ($a$) – time ($t$) graph that best suits this motion is :

  • A. A negative rectangle followed by a line rising through the axis
  • B. A single positive trapezium above the axis
  • C. A line rising from the origin, then levelling off at a constant positive value
  • D. A positive rectangle, then zero, then a negative rectangle ✓

Solution: A positive rectangle, then zero, then a negative rectangle Acceleration is the slope of the $v$–$t$ graph. Rising part: constant positive slope, so $a$ is a constant positive value. Flat part: velocity constant, so $a = 0$. Falling part: constant negative slope, so $a$ is a constant negative value. ∴ The $a$–$t$ graph is a positive rectangle, then zero, then a negative rectangle.

Q42.

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is $\dfrac{x}{2}$ times its original time period. Then the value of $x$ is:

  • A. 4
  • B. $\sqrt{3}$
  • C. $\sqrt{2}$ ✓
  • D. $2\sqrt{3}$

Solution: $x = \sqrt{2}$ Time period of a simple pendulum $T = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{l}{g}}$ does not depend on the mass of the bob. With $l' = \dfrac{l}{2}$: $T' = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{l}{2g}} = \dfrac{T}{\sqrt{2}}$ $\dfrac{x}{2} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \Rightarrow x = \sqrt{2}$

Q43.

A metallic bar of Young's modulus, $0.5 \times 10^{11}$ N m$^{-2}$ and coefficient of linear thermal expansion $10^{-5}\ ^{\circ}$C$^{-1}$, length 1 m and area of cross-section $10^{-3}$ m$^{2}$ is heated from 0$^{\circ}$C to 100$^{\circ}$C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is :

  • A. $2 \times 10^{3}$ N
  • B. $5 \times 10^{3}$ N
  • C. $50 \times 10^{3}$ N ✓
  • D. $100 \times 10^{3}$ N

Solution: $50 \times 10^{3}$ N The bar is not allowed to expand, so thermal strain $= \alpha\Delta T = 10^{-5} \times 100 = 10^{-3}$. Compressive stress $= Y \times \text{strain} = 0.5 \times 10^{11} \times 10^{-3} = 5 \times 10^{7}\ \text{N m}^{-2}$ Compressive force $= \text{stress} \times A = 5 \times 10^{7} \times 10^{-3} = 50 \times 10^{3}\ \text{N}$

Q44.

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to: A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic. B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic. C. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting. D. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar. Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

  • A. C only
  • B. B and D only
  • C. A and C only ✓
  • D. A, C and D only

Solution: A and C only A: A magnetic sheet is attracted by the pole, so a force is needed to hold it in place; A is correct. B: A non-magnetic sheet feels no magnetic force, so no force is needed; B is wrong. C: Moving a conducting sheet in the field sets up eddy currents that oppose the motion, so a force is needed; C is correct. D: A non-conducting, non-polar sheet does not interact with the field, so no force is needed; D is wrong.

Q45.

The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:

  • A. They originate from charges moving with uniform speed ✓
  • B. They are transverse in nature
  • C. The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field
  • D. They travel with a speed equal to $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}}$

Solution: They originate from charges moving with uniform speed (the incorrect statement) Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerated charges; a charge moving with uniform speed gives only a steady magnetic field and radiates no wave. (B) Electromagnetic waves are transverse: $\vec{E}$ and $\vec{B}$ are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of travel. (C) In an electromagnetic wave the energy density of the electric field equals that of the magnetic field. (D) In free space they travel with speed $c = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}}$.

Q46.

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If $I$ is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

  • A. Displacement current of magnitude greater than $I$ flows but can be in any direction
  • B. There is no current
  • C. Displacement current of magnitude equal to $I$ flows in the same direction as $I$ ✓
  • D. Displacement current of magnitude equal to $I$ flows in a direction opposite to that of $I$

Solution: Displacement current equal to $I$, in the same direction as $I$ By the Ampere–Maxwell law $\oint \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{l} = \mu_0(i_c + i_d)$; in the gap $i_c = 0$, so continuity of current needs $i_d = I$, in the same direction as $I$. (A) The displacement current equals $I$, not more, and its direction is that of $I$. (B) No conduction current crosses the gap, but a displacement current does. (D) The displacement current is in the same direction as $I$, not opposite.

Q47.

An iron bar of length $L$ has magnetic moment $M$. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle $60^{\circ}$ with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is :

  • A. $\dfrac{M}{\sqrt{3}}$
  • B. $M$
  • C. $\dfrac{M}{2}$ ✓
  • D. $2M$

Solution: $\dfrac{M}{2}$ Magnetic moment $M = m \times L$, where $m$ is the pole strength. With $60^{\circ}$ between the two arms of length $\dfrac{L}{2}$, the poles and the bend form an equilateral triangle, so the poles are now $\dfrac{L}{2}$ apart. $\therefore\ M' = m \times \dfrac{L}{2} = \dfrac{M}{2}$

Q48.

The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass $m$ from the surface of earth of mass $M$ and radius $R$ in a circular orbit at an altitude of $2R$ from the surface of the earth is:

  • A. $\dfrac{GmM}{3R}$
  • B. $\dfrac{5GmM}{6R}$ ✓
  • C. $\dfrac{2GmM}{3R}$
  • D. $\dfrac{GmM}{2R}$

Solution: $\dfrac{5GmM}{6R}$ Energy needed = total energy in orbit − energy at the surface. Orbit radius $r = R + 2R = 3R$, so total energy in orbit $= -\dfrac{GMm}{2r} = -\dfrac{GMm}{6R}$. Energy at the surface (at rest) $= -\dfrac{GMm}{R}$ $\therefore\ E = -\dfrac{GMm}{6R} + \dfrac{GMm}{R} = \dfrac{5GMm}{6R}$

Q49.

The following graph represents the $T$-$V$ curves of an ideal gas (where $T$ is the temperature and $V$ the volume) at three pressures $P_1$, $P_2$ and $P_3$ compared with those of Charles's law represented as dotted lines. The curve labelled $P_1$ lies furthest to the left, $P_2$ in the middle and $P_3$ furthest to the right. Then the correct relation is:

  • A. $P_1 > P_2 > P_3$ ✓
  • B. $P_3 > P_2 > P_1$
  • C. $P_1 > P_3 > P_2$
  • D. $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$

Solution: $P_1 > P_2 > P_3$ For an ideal gas $PV = nRT$, so at a fixed temperature $V \propto \dfrac{1}{P}$. At the same $T$ the curves give $V_1 < V_2 < V_3$, since $P_1$ lies furthest left. $\therefore\ P_1 > P_2 > P_3$

Q50.

A force defined by $F = \alpha t^{2} + \beta t$ acts on a particle at a given time $t$. The factor which is dimensionless, if $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are constants, is:

  • A. $\dfrac{\alpha\beta}{t}$
  • B. $\dfrac{\beta t}{\alpha}$
  • C. $\dfrac{\alpha t}{\beta}$ ✓
  • D. $\alpha\beta t$

Solution: $\dfrac{\alpha t}{\beta}$ By the principle of homogeneity, $[F] = [\alpha t^{2}] = [\beta t]$. $[\alpha] = \dfrac{[F]}{[T^{2}]}$ and $[\beta] = \dfrac{[F]}{[T]}$, so $[\alpha][T] = [\beta]$. $\therefore\ \dfrac{\alpha t}{\beta}$ is dimensionless.

Q51.

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • B. Both statement I and Statement II are true ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are true I: Aniline forms a salt with the catalyst AlCl₃, a Lewis acid, so it does not undergo Friedel–Crafts reaction; I is true. II: Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion of phthalimide, so aromatic primary amines such as aniline cannot be made by Gabriel synthesis; II is true.

Q52.

Match List I with List II. List I (Compound): A. NH$_3$ B. BrF$_5$ C. XeF$_4$ D. SF$_6$ List II (Shape/geometry): I. Trigonal Pyramidal II. Square Planar III. Octahedral IV. Square Pyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III ✓
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Solution: A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III NH₃: 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair (sp³), so trigonal pyramidal (A-I). BrF₅: 5 bond pairs and 1 lone pair (sp³d²), so square pyramidal (B-IV). XeF₄: 4 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs (sp³d²), so square planar (C-II). SF₆: 6 bond pairs and no lone pair (sp³d²), so octahedral (D-III).

Q53.

Match List I with List II. List I (Molecule): A. ethane B. ethene C. carbon molecule, C$_2$ D. ethyne List II (Number and types of bond/s between two carbon atoms): I. one $\sigma$-bond and two $\pi$-bonds II. two $\pi$-bonds III. one $\sigma$-bond IV. one $\sigma$-bond and one $\pi$-bond Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • B. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I ✓

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Ethane, H₃C–CH₃: single bond, one σ-bond (A-III). Ethene, H₂C=CH₂: double bond, one σ-bond and one π-bond (B-IV). C₂: its four bonding electrons are in two π molecular orbitals, so its double bond is two π-bonds (C-II). Ethyne, HC≡CH: triple bond, one σ-bond and two π-bonds (D-I).

Q54.

For the reaction 2A $\rightleftharpoons$ B + C, K$_C$ = $4 \times 10^{-3}$. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = $2 \times 10^{-3}$ M. Then, which of the following is correct?

  • A. Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
  • B. Reaction is at equilibrium.
  • C. Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • D. Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction. ✓

Solution: The reaction tends to go in the backward direction Reaction quotient $Q_c = \dfrac{[B][C]}{[A]^{2}} = \dfrac{(2 \times 10^{-3})(2 \times 10^{-3})}{(2 \times 10^{-3})^{2}} = 1$, which is greater than $K_c = 4 \times 10^{-3}$, so the reaction tends to go backward. (A) A is still present and $Q_c$ is finite, so the reaction has not gone to completion. (B) At equilibrium $Q_c = K_c$, which is not the case here. (C) A forward tendency needs $Q_c < K_c$.

Q55.

Match List I with List II. List-I (Process): A. Isothermal process B. Isochoric process C. Isobaric process D. Adiabatic process List-II (Conditions): I. No heat exchange II. Carried out at constant temperature III. Carried out at constant volume IV. Carried out at constant pressure Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I ✓
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Solution: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I Isothermal: temperature stays constant (A-II). Isochoric: volume stays constant (B-III). Isobaric: pressure stays constant (C-IV). Adiabatic: no heat exchange between system and surroundings (D-I).

Q56.

Match List I with List II List I (Quantum Number): A. $m_l$ B. $m_s$ C. $l$ D. $n$ List II (Information provided): I. Shape of orbital II. Size of orbital III. Orientation of orbital IV. Orientation of spin of electron Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Magnetic quantum number $m_l$ gives the orientation of the orbital (A-III). Spin quantum number $m_s$ gives the orientation of the electron's spin (B-IV). Azimuthal quantum number $l$ gives the shape of the orbital (C-I). Principal quantum number $n$ gives the size of the orbital (D-II).

Q57.

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Li < Be < N < B < C
  • B. Li < Be < B < C < N
  • C. Li < B < Be < C < N ✓
  • D. Li < Be < C < B < N

Solution: Li < B < Be < C < N First ionization enthalpy generally increases across period 2: Li 520, C 1086 and N 1402 kJ mol⁻¹. Boron (801 kJ mol⁻¹) is below beryllium (899 kJ mol⁻¹): a 2p electron penetrates less than a 2s electron, is more shielded and is easier to remove. ∴ Li < B < Be < C < N

Q58.

Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show $-2$ oxidation state?

  • A. Po ✓
  • B. O
  • C. Se
  • D. Te

Solution: Polonium (Po) The stability of the −2 oxidation state decreases down group 16, and polonium hardly shows it; O, Se and Te all show −2.

Q59.

In which of the following equilibria, K$_p$ and K$_c$ are NOT equal?

  • A. $2\text{BrCl}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{Br}_{2(g)} + \text{Cl}_{2(g)}$
  • B. $\text{PCl}_{5(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{PCl}_{3(g)} + \text{Cl}_{2(g)}$ ✓
  • C. $\text{H}_{2(g)} + \text{I}_{2(g)} \rightleftharpoons 2\text{HI}_{(g)}$
  • D. $\text{CO}_{(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{CO}_{2(g)} + \text{H}_{2(g)}$

Solution: PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) $K_p = K_c(RT)^{\Delta n_g}$; for PCl₅ ⇌ PCl₃ + Cl₂, $\Delta n_g = 2 - 1 = 1$, so $K_p = K_c RT \neq K_c$. (A) 2BrCl ⇌ Br₂ + Cl₂: $\Delta n_g = 2 - 2 = 0$, so $K_p = K_c$. (C) H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI: $\Delta n_g = 2 - 2 = 0$, so $K_p = K_c$. (D) CO + H₂O ⇌ CO₂ + H₂: $\Delta n_g = 2 - 2 = 0$, so $K_p = K_c$.

Q60.

The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are A. Tollen's reagent B. Schiff's reagent C. HCN D. NH$_2$OH E. NaHSO$_3$ Choose the correct options from the given below:

  • A. E and D
  • B. B and C
  • C. A and D
  • D. B and E ✓

Solution: B and E Despite its aldehyde group, glucose gives no Schiff's test and forms no hydrogensulphite addition product with NaHSO₃. This shows the aldehyde group is not free; glucose exists mainly in a cyclic (hemiacetal) form. Glucose does react with Tollens' reagent (silver mirror), HCN (cyanohydrin) and NH₂OH (oxime), so A, C and D are not answers.

Q61.

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation. Allylbenzene, C$_6$H$_5$CH$_2$–CH=CH$_2$, is converted to 3-phenylpropanal, C$_6$H$_5$CH$_2$–CH$_2$–CHO.

  • A. (i) H$_2$O/H$^{+}$, (ii) PCC
  • B. (i) H$_2$O/H$^{+}$, (ii) CrO$_3$
  • C. (i) BH$_3$, (ii) H$_2$O$_2$/$\overset{\ominus}{\text{O}}$H, (iii) PCC ✓
  • D. (i) BH$_3$, (ii) H$_2$O$_2$/$\overset{\ominus}{\text{O}}$H, (iii) alk. KMnO$_4$, (iv) H$_3$O$^{\oplus}$

Solution: (i) BH₃, (ii) H₂O₂/OH⁻, (iii) PCC Hydroboration–oxidation (BH₃, then H₂O₂/OH⁻) adds water against Markovnikov's rule, giving the primary alcohol C₆H₅CH₂CH₂CH₂OH, and PCC oxidises a primary alcohol only as far as the aldehyde, C₆H₅CH₂CH₂CHO. (A) H₂O/H⁺ adds water by Markovnikov's rule, so –OH goes on an inner carbon; the secondary alcohol is oxidised by PCC to a ketone, not the aldehyde. (B) H₂O/H⁺ gives the same secondary alcohol, and CrO₃ oxidises it to a ketone. (D) Alkaline KMnO₄ oxidises the primary alcohol on to the carboxylic acid, not the aldehyde.

Q62.

The E$^{\circ}$ value for the Mn$^{3+}$/Mn$^{2+}$ couple is more positive than that of Cr$^{3+}$/Cr$^{2+}$ or Fe$^{3+}$/Fe$^{2+}$ due to change of

  • A. $d^{3}$ to $d^{5}$ configuration
  • B. $d^{5}$ to $d^{4}$ configuration
  • C. $d^{5}$ to $d^{2}$ configuration
  • D. $d^{4}$ to $d^{5}$ configuration ✓

Solution: d⁴ to d⁵ configuration Mn³⁺ is [Ar]3d⁴ and Mn²⁺ is [Ar]3d⁵, so reducing Mn³⁺ to Mn²⁺ changes d⁴ to d⁵. The half-filled d⁵ configuration is extra stable, so Mn³⁺ is readily reduced and E° is more positive; this matches the very large third ionisation enthalpy of Mn. For Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ (d³ to d⁴) and Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ (d⁵ to d⁶) reduction gives no such extra stability.

Q63.

Given below are two statements : Statement I: Both [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+}$ and [CoF$_6$]$^{3-}$ complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour. Statement II: [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+}$ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF$_6$]$^{3-}$ is paramagnetic. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Co³⁺ is 3d⁶ in both complexes. Strong-field NH₃ pairs all six electrons (d²sp³, inner orbital), so [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is octahedral and diamagnetic. Weak-field F⁻ causes no pairing (sp³d², outer orbital), so [CoF₆]³⁻ is octahedral with four unpaired electrons and is paramagnetic. ∴ Both statements are true.

Q64.

Fehling's solution 'A' is

  • A. aqueous sodium citrate
  • B. aqueous copper sulphate ✓
  • C. alkaline copper sulphate
  • D. alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle's salt)

Solution: Aqueous copper sulphate Fehling solution A is aqueous copper sulphate and Fehling solution B is alkaline sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle salt); the two are mixed in equal amounts before the test.

Q65.

In which of the following processes entropy increases? A. A liquid evaporates to vapour. B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K. C. $2\text{NaHCO}_{3(s)} \rightarrow \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_{3(s)} + \text{CO}_{2(g)} + \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(g)}$ D. $\text{Cl}_{2(g)} \rightarrow 2\text{Cl}_{(g)}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. C and D
  • B. A and C
  • C. A, B and D
  • D. A, C and D ✓

Solution: A, C and D A: Vapour is far more disordered than liquid, so entropy increases. B: Cooling a crystalline solid towards 0 K reduces its disorder, so entropy decreases. C: A solid gives two gases, CO₂ and H₂O, so entropy increases. D: One mole of gas gives two moles of gas, so entropy increases.

Q66.

The energy of an electron in the ground state ($n$ = 1) for He$^{+}$ ion is $-x$ J, then that for an electron in $n$ = 2 state for Be$^{3+}$ ion in J is

  • A. $-\dfrac{4}{9}x$
  • B. $-x$ ✓
  • C. $-\dfrac{x}{9}$
  • D. $-4x$

Solution: $-x$ J Energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like species: $E_n = -R_H\dfrac{Z^{2}}{n^{2}}$ He⁺ ($Z = 2$, $n = 1$): $E = -4R_H = -x$, so $R_H = \dfrac{x}{4}$. Be³⁺ ($Z = 4$, $n = 2$): $E = -R_H \times \dfrac{16}{4} = -4R_H = -x$ J

Q67.

Match List I with List II. List I (Reaction): A. Bicyclohexylidene (two cyclohexane rings joined by a C=C) gives 2 molecules of cyclohexanone B. Benzene gives benzophenone (diphenyl ketone) C. Cyclohexanol gives cyclohexanone D. Ethylbenzene gives potassium benzoate List II (Reagents/Condition): I. C$_6$H$_5$COCl / Anhyd. AlCl$_3$ II. CrO$_3$ III. KMnO$_4$/KOH, $\Delta$ IV. (i) O$_3$ (ii) Zn-H$_2$O Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III ✓

Solution: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III Ozonolysis, O₃ then Zn–H₂O, cleaves the C=C of bicyclohexylidene into two cyclohexanone molecules (A-IV). Friedel–Crafts acylation of benzene with C₆H₅COCl and anhydrous AlCl₃ gives benzophenone (B-I). CrO₃ oxidises the secondary alcohol cyclohexanol to cyclohexanone (C-II). Hot alkaline KMnO₄ oxidises the whole side chain of ethylbenzene to –COO⁻, giving potassium benzoate (D-III).

Q68.

Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of

  • A. rate constant at two different temperatures ✓
  • B. rate constant at standard temperature
  • C. probability of collision
  • D. orientation of reactant molecules during collision

Solution: Rate constant at two different temperatures Arrhenius equation: $\log\dfrac{k_2}{k_1} = \dfrac{E_a}{2.303R}\left(\dfrac{T_2 - T_1}{T_1T_2}\right)$ ∴ $E_a$ can be found if the rate constants $k_1$ and $k_2$ are known at two temperatures $T_1$ and $T_2$.

Q69.

The most stable carbocation among the following is :

  • A. The 1-methylcyclohexyl cation (a cyclohexane ring carrying a methyl group and the positive charge on the same carbon) ✓
  • B. CH$_3$CH$_2$–$\overset{\oplus}{\text{C}}$H–CH(CH$_3$)$_2$
  • C. CH$_3$–$\overset{\oplus}{\text{C}}$H–CH$_2$–CH(CH$_3$)$_2$
  • D. Cyclopentyl–$\overset{\oplus}{\text{C}}$H$_2$

Solution: 1-Methylcyclohexyl cation Carbocation stability rises with hyperconjugation: the 1-methylcyclohexyl cation is tertiary with 7 α-hydrogens, the most of the four. (B) A secondary carbocation with only 3 α-hydrogens. (C) A secondary carbocation with 5 α-hydrogens. (D) A primary carbocation with just 1 α-hydrogen, the least stable.

Q70.

Given below are two statements: Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct I: Boiling points are n-pentane (309 K) > isopentane (301 K) > neopentane (282.5 K), so I is correct. II: Branching makes a molecule more nearly spherical, with a smaller area of contact, so intermolecular forces are weaker and the boiling point falls; II is correct.

Q71.

Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?

  • A. (CH$_3$)$_3$C–OH ✓
  • B. CH$_3$–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–CH$_2$OH
  • C. CH$_3$–CH$_2$–CH(OH)–CH$_3$
  • D. CH$_3$–CH(CH$_3$)–CH$_2$OH

Solution: (CH₃)₃C–OH, a tertiary alcohol Tertiary alcohols form halides at once with Lucas reagent (conc. HCl + ZnCl₂), through a stable tertiary carbocation, so turbidity appears immediately; (CH₃)₃C–OH is tertiary. (B) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH is primary: no turbidity at room temperature. (C) CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₃ is secondary: turbidity appears only after some time. (D) (CH₃)₂CHCH₂OH is primary: no turbidity at room temperature.

Q72.

The Henry's law constant (K$_H$) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, $2 \times 10^{-5}$ and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:

  • A. A > B > C
  • B. B > A > C
  • C. B > C > A ✓
  • D. A > C > B

Solution: B > C > A By Henry's law $p = K_H\,x$, so at a given pressure the solubility $x \propto \dfrac{1}{K_H}$. $K_H$ order: A (145 kbar) > C (35 kbar) > B ($2 \times 10^{-5}$ kbar) ∴ Solubility: B > C > A

Q73.

Which plot of $\ln k$ vs $\dfrac{1}{T}$ is consistent with Arrhenius equation?

  • A. A straight line of negative slope, starting high on the $\ln k$ axis and falling ✓
  • B. A straight line of positive slope starting from the $\ln k$ axis above the origin
  • C. A straight line of positive slope starting at a lower intercept
  • D. A straight line of positive slope passing near the origin

Solution: A straight line of negative slope, falling from a high intercept on the $\ln k$ axis Arrhenius equation $k = Ae^{-E_a/RT}$ gives $\ln k = \ln A - \dfrac{E_a}{R}\cdot\dfrac{1}{T}$. So $\ln k$ against $\dfrac{1}{T}$ is a straight line with intercept $\ln A$ and slope $-\dfrac{E_a}{R}$. ∴ The slope is negative: the line starts high on the $\ln k$ axis and falls.

Q74.

On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as

  • A. Chromatography
  • B. Crystallization
  • C. Sublimation ✓
  • D. Distillation

Solution: Sublimation Sublimation separates a solid that changes directly into vapour on heating from impurities that do not sublime.

Q75.

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

  • A. HF
  • B. o-Nitrophenol ✓
  • C. p-Nitrophenol
  • D. m-Nitrophenol

Solution: o-Nitrophenol In o-nitrophenol the –OH and –NO₂ groups are on adjacent carbons, so the –OH hydrogen bonds to an oxygen of –NO₂ within the same molecule. (A) HF forms only intermolecular hydrogen bonds. (C) In p-nitrophenol the two groups are too far apart, so its hydrogen bonds are intermolecular. (D) In m-nitrophenol too the groups are too far apart, so its hydrogen bonds are intermolecular.

Q76.

1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

  • A. 200 mg
  • B. 750 mg
  • C. 250 mg ✓
  • D. Zero mg

Solution: 250 mg Moles of HCl $= 0.75 \times \dfrac{25}{1000} = 0.01875$ mol HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O, so 0.01875 mol NaOH reacts, i.e. $0.01875 \times 40 = 0.75$ g. ∴ NaOH left $= 1 - 0.75 = 0.25$ g $= 250$ mg

Q77.

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

  • A. BaCl$_2$ + Na$_2$SO$_4$ $\rightarrow$ BaSO$_4$ + 2NaCl ✓
  • B. Zn + CuSO$_4$ $\rightarrow$ ZnSO$_4$ + Cu
  • C. 2KClO$_3$ + I$_2$ $\rightarrow$ 2KIO$_3$ + Cl$_2$
  • D. H$_2$ + Cl$_2$ $\rightarrow$ 2HCl

Solution: BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl (no change in oxidation states) In BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl every element keeps its oxidation state (Ba +2, Na +1, Cl −1, S +6, O −2); it is a precipitation reaction, not a redox reaction. (B) Zn is oxidised (0 to +2) and Cu is reduced (+2 to 0). (C) I is oxidised (0 to +5) and Cl is reduced (+5 to 0). (D) H is oxidised (0 to +1) and Cl is reduced (0 to −1).

Q78.

'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions? A. Ti$^{3+}$ B. Cr$^{2+}$ C. Mn$^{2+}$ D. Fe$^{2+}$ E. Sc$^{3+}$ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • A. A and D only
  • B. B and D only ✓
  • C. A and E only
  • D. B and C only

Solution: B and D only: Cr²⁺ and Fe²⁺ Spin-only magnetic moment $\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)}$ BM depends only on the number of unpaired electrons $n$. Ti³⁺ 3d¹ (1), Cr²⁺ 3d⁴ (4), Mn²⁺ 3d⁵ (5), Fe²⁺ 3d⁶ (4), Sc³⁺ 3d⁰ (0) ∴ Cr²⁺ and Fe²⁺, each with 4 unpaired electrons, have the same moment, $\sqrt{24} \approx 4.9$ BM.

Q79.

The highest number of helium atoms is in

  • A. 2.271098 L of helium at STP
  • B. 4 mol of helium ✓
  • C. 4 u of helium
  • D. 4 g of helium

Solution: 4 mol of helium 2.271098 L at STP $= \dfrac{2.271098}{22.71098} = 0.1$ mol, i.e. $0.1N_A$ atoms. 4 mol of helium $= 4N_A$ atoms. 4 u is the mass of one helium atom, so just 1 atom. 4 g of helium $= 1$ mol $= N_A$ atoms. ∴ 4 mol of helium has the most atoms.

Q80.

Match List I with List II. List I (Complex): A. [Co(NH$_3$)$_5$(NO$_2$)]Cl$_2$ B. [Co(NH$_3$)$_5$(SO$_4$)]Br C. [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$][Cr(CN)$_6$] D. [Co(H$_2$O)$_6$]Cl$_3$ List II (Type of isomerism): I. Solvate isomerism II. Linkage isomerism III. Ionization isomerism IV. Coordination isomerism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I ✓
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Solution: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I [Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]Cl₂: NO₂⁻ can bind through N or through O, so linkage isomerism (A-II). [Co(NH₃)₅(SO₄)]Br: SO₄²⁻ and Br⁻ can swap between the coordination sphere and the counter ion, so ionisation isomerism (B-III). [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆]: ligands can swap between the cationic and anionic complexes, so coordination isomerism (C-IV). [Co(H₂O)₆]Cl₃: water can be a ligand or free solvent outside the coordination sphere, so solvate (hydrate) isomerism (D-I).

Q81.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order H$_2$O > H$_2$Te > H$_2$Se > H$_2$S. Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H$_2$O is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H$_2$O, it has higher boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are true I: The order H₂O > H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂S is correct; from H₂S to H₂Te the boiling point rises with molecular mass as van der Waals forces strengthen. II: On molecular mass alone H₂O should boil lowest, but extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding gives it the highest boiling point; II is true.

Q82.

A compound with a molecular formula of C$_6$H$_{14}$ has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is :

  • A. 2,2-dimethylbutane
  • B. n-hexane
  • C. 2-methylpentane
  • D. 2,3-dimethylbutane ✓

Solution: 2,3-Dimethylbutane A tertiary carbon is bonded to three other carbons; in 2,3-dimethylbutane, (CH₃)₂CH–CH(CH₃)₂, both C-2 and C-3 are such carbons. (A) 2,2-Dimethylbutane has a quaternary carbon and no tertiary carbon. (B) n-Hexane has no tertiary carbon. (C) 2-Methylpentane has only one tertiary carbon.

Q83.

Match List I with List II. List I (Conversion): A. 1 mol of H$_2$O to O$_2$ B. 1 mol of MnO$_4^{-}$ to Mn$^{2+}$ C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl$_2$ D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe$_2$O$_3$ List II (Number of Faraday required): I. 3F II. 2F III. 1F IV. 5F Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Solution: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻: 4F for 2 mol of H₂O, so 2F for 1 mol (A-II). MnO₄⁻ → Mn²⁺: Mn goes from +7 to +2, so 5F per mol (B-IV). Ca²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Ca: 2F per mol, so 3F for 1.5 mol (C-I). FeO → Fe₂O₃: Fe goes from +2 to +3, so 1F per mol of FeO (D-III).

Q84.

The compound that will undergo S$_N$1 reaction with the fastest rate is

  • A. (1-Bromoethyl)benzene, C$_6$H$_5$CH(Br)CH$_3$ ✓
  • B. (Bromomethyl)cyclohexane
  • C. Bromocyclohexane
  • D. Bromobenzene

Solution: (1-Bromoethyl)benzene, C₆H₅CH(Br)CH₃ SN1 rate depends on the stability of the carbocation formed in the slow step; C₆H₅CH(Br)CH₃ gives a secondary benzylic cation, C₆H₅C⁺HCH₃, stabilised by resonance with the ring, so it reacts fastest. (B) (Bromomethyl)cyclohexane would give an unstable primary cation. (C) Bromocyclohexane gives a secondary cation with no resonance stabilisation. (D) Bromobenzene does not undergo SN1: its C–Br bond has partial double bond character and a phenyl cation is very unstable.

Q85.

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. F < O < N < C < Si
  • B. Si < C < N < O < F ✓
  • C. Si < C < O < N < F
  • D. O < F < N < C < Si

Solution: Si < C < N < O < F Electronegativity increases across a period and decreases down a group. Si lies below C in group 14, so it is the least electronegative; across period 2, C < N < O < F. ∴ Si < C < N < O < F

Q86.

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are 2-Methylcyclohexan-1-ol is treated with PBr$_3$ to give A (major), which on treatment with alc. KOH and heat gives B (major).

  • A. A = a bromo-alcohol (OH retained, Br added); B = 2-methylcyclohexanone
  • B. A = 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane; B = 1-methylcyclohexene ✓
  • C. A = 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane; B = 3-methylcyclohexene
  • D. A = a bromo-alcohol (OH retained, Br added); B = a methylcyclohexenol

Solution: A = 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane; B = 1-methylcyclohexene PBr₃ replaces –OH by –Br, so A is 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane. Alcoholic KOH on heating removes HBr (dehydrohalogenation) to form an alkene. By Saytzeff's rule the more substituted alkene is the major product, so B is 1-methylcyclohexene, not the less substituted 3-methylcyclohexene.

Q87.

Identify the correct answer.

  • A. Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO$_3^{2-}$ ion ✓
  • B. Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone
  • C. BF$_3$ has non-zero dipole moment
  • D. Dipole moment of NF$_3$ is greater than that of NH$_3$

Solution: Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO₃²⁻ In CO₃²⁻ the C=O double bond can sit on any of the three oxygens, so three equivalent canonical forms can be drawn. (B) Ozone has two resonance structures, not three. (C) BF₃ is trigonal planar and symmetrical, so its bond dipoles cancel and its dipole moment is zero. (D) In NH₃ the lone pair moment adds to the bond moments, while in NF₃ it opposes them, so NF₃ has the smaller dipole moment.

Q88.

The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25$^{\circ}$C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is (Given R = 2.0 cal K$^{-1}$ mol$^{-1}$)

  • A. 100 calories
  • B. 0 calorie
  • C. $-413.14$ calories ✓
  • D. 413.14 calories

Solution: $-413.14$ calories Work in reversible isothermal expansion: $w = -2.303\,nRT\log\dfrac{p_1}{p_2}$ $w = -2.303 \times 1 \times 2 \times 298 \times \log\dfrac{20}{10}\ \text{cal}$ $w = -2.303 \times 596 \times 0.301\ \text{cal} \approx -413.1\ \text{cal}$ The sign is negative because the gas does work on the surroundings as it expands.

Q89.

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N$_2$ = $3.0 \times 10^{-3}$ M, O$_2$ = $4.2 \times 10^{-3}$ M and NO = $2.8 \times 10^{-3}$ M. $$2\text{NO}_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons \text{N}_{2(g)} + \text{O}_{2(g)}$$ If 0.1 mol L$^{-1}$ of NO$_{(g)}$ is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation ($\alpha$) of NO$_{(g)}$ at equilibrium?

  • A. 0.717 ✓
  • B. 0.00889
  • C. 0.0889
  • D. 0.8889

Solution: $\alpha = 0.717$ $K_c = \dfrac{[\text{N}_2][\text{O}_2]}{[\text{NO}]^{2}} = \dfrac{(3.0 \times 10^{-3})(4.2 \times 10^{-3})}{(2.8 \times 10^{-3})^{2}} = 1.607$ Starting from 0.1 M NO, at equilibrium [NO] $= 0.1(1 - \alpha)$ and [N₂] = [O₂] $= 0.05\alpha$. $1.607 = \dfrac{(0.05\alpha)^{2}}{(0.1)^{2}(1 - \alpha)^{2}} \Rightarrow \dfrac{\alpha}{1 - \alpha} = 2\sqrt{1.607} = 2.535$ $\therefore\ \alpha = \dfrac{2.535}{3.535} = 0.717$

Q90.

For the given reaction: 1,2-Dicyclohexylethene, in which each carbon of the C=C carries one cyclohexyl group and one hydrogen, is treated with KMnO$_4$/H$^{+}$ to give 'P' (major product). 'P' is

  • A. A 1,2-diketone, cyclohexyl–CO–CO–cyclohexyl
  • B. Cyclohexanecarbaldehyde, cyclohexyl–CHO
  • C. Cyclohexanecarboxylic acid, cyclohexyl–COOH ✓
  • D. A 1,2-diol, cyclohexyl–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–cyclohexyl

Solution: Cyclohexanecarboxylic acid, C₆H₁₁COOH Acidified KMnO₄ cleaves the C=C bond. Each alkene carbon carries one H, so each fragment is oxidised past the aldehyde to a carboxylic acid. C₆H₁₁CH=CHC₆H₁₁ → 2 C₆H₁₁COOH, cyclohexanecarboxylic acid.

Q91.

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

  • A. Pm$^{3+}$ and Sm$^{3+}$
  • B. Ce$^{4+}$ and Yb$^{2+}$ ✓
  • C. Ce$^{3+}$ and Eu$^{2+}$
  • D. Gd$^{3+}$ and Eu$^{3+}$

Solution: Ce⁴⁺ and Yb²⁺ An ion is diamagnetic only if it has no unpaired electrons: Ce⁴⁺ is 4f⁰ and Yb²⁺ is 4f¹⁴, so both are diamagnetic. (A) Pm³⁺ (4f⁴) and Sm³⁺ (4f⁵) have unpaired electrons. (C) Ce³⁺ (4f¹) and Eu²⁺ (4f⁷) have unpaired electrons. (D) Gd³⁺ (4f⁷) and Eu³⁺ (4f⁶) have unpaired electrons.

Q92.

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are 3ROH + PCl$_3$ $\rightarrow$ 3RCl + A ROH + PCl$_5$ $\rightarrow$ RCl + HCl + B

  • A. H$_3$PO$_3$ and POCl$_3$ ✓
  • B. POCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_3$
  • C. POCl$_3$ and H$_3$PO$_4$
  • D. H$_3$PO$_4$ and POCl$_3$

Solution: H₃PO₃ and POCl₃ 3ROH + PCl₃ → 3RCl + H₃PO₃, so A is H₃PO₃. ROH + PCl₅ → RCl + POCl₃ + HCl, so B is POCl₃.

Q93.

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI. A. Al$^{3+}$ B. Cu$^{2+}$ C. Ba$^{2+}$ D. Co$^{2+}$ E. Mg$^{2+}$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. E, A, B, C, D
  • B. B, A, D, C, E ✓
  • C. B, C, A, D, E
  • D. E, C, D, B, A

Solution: B, A, D, C, E: Cu²⁺ (II), Al³⁺ (III), Co²⁺ (IV), Ba²⁺ (V), Mg²⁺ (VI) Cu²⁺ is in group II, precipitated as sulphide by H₂S in dilute HCl. Al³⁺ is in group III, precipitated as hydroxide by NH₄OH in the presence of NH₄Cl. Co²⁺ is in group IV, precipitated as sulphide by H₂S in ammoniacal medium. Ba²⁺ is in group V, precipitated as carbonate by (NH₄)₂CO₃; Mg²⁺ is in group VI. ∴ B (II), A (III), D (IV), C (V), E (VI)

Q94.

Given below are two statements : Statement I : [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+}$ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH$_3$)$_4$Cl$_2$]$^{+}$ is a heteroleptic complex. Statement II : Complex [Co(NH$_3$)$_6$]$^{3+}$ has only one kind of ligands but [Co(NH$_3$)$_4$Cl$_2$]$^{+}$ has more than one kind of ligands. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are true I: In [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ the metal is bound only to NH₃, so it is homoleptic; [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ has NH₃ and Cl⁻, so it is heteroleptic; I is true. II: This is the definition itself: a homoleptic complex has one kind of ligand and a heteroleptic complex more than one; II is true.

Q95.

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is : (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

  • A. ABC$_4$
  • B. A$_2$BC$_2$
  • C. ABC$_3$ ✓
  • D. AB$_2$C$_2$

Solution: ABC₃ Percentage of C $= 100 - 32 - 20 = 48\%$ Moles in 100 g: A $= \dfrac{32}{64} = 0.5$, B $= \dfrac{20}{40} = 0.5$, C $= \dfrac{48}{32} = 1.5$ Dividing by the smallest, 0.5: A : B : C = 1 : 1 : 3 ∴ The empirical formula is ABC₃.

Q96.

The plot of osmotic pressure ($\Pi$) vs concentration (mol L$^{-1}$) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol$^{-1}$. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use R = 0.083 L bar mol$^{-1}$ K$^{-1}$)

  • A. 12.05$^{\circ}$C
  • B. 37$^{\circ}$C ✓
  • C. 310$^{\circ}$C
  • D. 25.73$^{\circ}$C

Solution: 37 °C Osmotic pressure $\Pi = CRT$, so the slope of $\Pi$ against $C$ is $RT$. $T = \dfrac{25.73}{0.083} = 310\ \text{K}$ ∴ Temperature $= 310 - 273 = 37$ °C

Q97.

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence: CH$_3$–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–I reacts with NaCN to give A; A on partial hydrolysis with OH$^{-}$ gives B; B with NaOH/Br$_2$ gives C (major).

  • A. $\alpha$-bromobutanoic acid
  • B. propylamine ✓
  • C. butylamine
  • D. butanamide

Solution: Propylamine CH₃CH₂CH₂I + NaCN → CH₃CH₂CH₂CN (A), by nucleophilic substitution. Partial hydrolysis of the nitrile gives the amide CH₃CH₂CH₂CONH₂ (B). Hoffmann bromamide degradation (Br₂/NaOH) gives an amine with one carbon fewer: CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂ (C), propylamine.

Q98.

During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe$^{2+}$ ion?

  • A. dilute sulphuric acid ✓
  • B. dilute hydrochloric acid
  • C. concentrated sulphuric acid
  • D. dilute nitric acid

Solution: Dilute sulphuric acid Dilute sulphuric acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe²⁺; it brings in no foreign ion, since the salt is itself a sulphate. Nitric acid would oxidise Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺, and hydrochloric acid would add foreign chloride ions.

Q99.

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27$^{\circ}$C to 57$^{\circ}$C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given R = 8.314 J K$^{-1}$ mol$^{-1}$, log 4 = 0.6021

  • A. 3804 kJ/mol
  • B. 38.04 kJ/mol ✓
  • C. 380.4 kJ/mol
  • D. 3.80 kJ/mol

Solution: 38.04 kJ/mol Arrhenius equation: $\log\dfrac{k_2}{k_1} = \dfrac{E_a}{2.303R}\left(\dfrac{T_2 - T_1}{T_1T_2}\right)$ With $T_1 = 300$ K, $T_2 = 330$ K and $\dfrac{k_2}{k_1} = 4$: $0.6021 = \dfrac{E_a}{2.303 \times 8.314}\left(\dfrac{30}{300 \times 330}\right)$ $E_a = \dfrac{0.6021 \times 2.303 \times 8.314 \times 300 \times 330}{30}\ \text{J mol}^{-1} = 3.804 \times 10^{4}\ \text{J mol}^{-1}$ $\therefore\ E_a = 38.04\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$

Q100.

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol$^{-1}$, 1 F = 96487 C)

  • A. 0.0315 g
  • B. 3.15 g
  • C. 0.315 g ✓
  • D. 31.5 g

Solution: 0.315 g Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu, so 2F deposit 63 g of copper. Charge passed $Q = It = 9.6487 \times 100 = 964.87$ C Mass of Cu $= \dfrac{63 \times 964.87}{2 \times 96487} = 0.315$ g

Q101.

The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

  • A. Haem
  • B. Zinc ✓
  • C. Niacin
  • D. Flavin

Solution: Zinc Zinc is a metal-ion cofactor of the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase; it forms coordination bonds with side chains at the active site and with the substrate. Haem is the prosthetic group of peroxidase and catalase, and niacin is part of the coenzymes NAD and NADP.

Q102.

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true ✓
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution: Statement I is false but Statement II is true I: Collenchyma, like parenchyma, is a living tissue; its cells are thickened at the corners with cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin; I is false. II: Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem, and xylem vessels are a characteristic feature of angiosperms; II is true.

Q103.

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

  • A. Telophase
  • B. Prophase
  • C. Metaphase ✓
  • D. Anaphase

Solution: Metaphase In metaphase, spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes and the chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate.

Q104.

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

  • A. BB/Bb
  • B. BB
  • C. bb ✓
  • D. Bb

Solution: bb, the recessive parent (test cross) A test cross with the recessive parent bb reveals the genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype. BB × bb gives only black seeds; Bb × bb gives black and white seeds in a 1 : 1 ratio.

Q105.

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN\left[\dfrac{K - N}{K}\right]$. From this equation, K indicates:

  • A. Population density
  • B. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
  • C. Biotic potential
  • D. Carrying capacity ✓

Solution: Carrying capacity In the logistic equation $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(\dfrac{K - N}{K}\right)$, $K$ is the carrying capacity, $N$ the population density and $r$ the intrinsic rate of natural increase.

Q106.

How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO$_2$ fixed in the Calvin cycle?

  • A. 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH ✓
  • B. 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • C. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • D. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

Solution: 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH Fixing one CO₂ in the Calvin cycle uses 3 ATP and 2 NADPH, so making one glucose (6 CO₂) needs 18 ATP and 12 NADPH.

Q107.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Clostridium butylicum B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Streptococcus sp. List II: I. Ethanol II. Streptokinase III. Butyric acid IV. Cyclosporin-A Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II ✓

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Clostridium butylicum produces butyric acid (A-III). Saccharomyces cerevisiae (brewer's yeast) is used for commercial production of ethanol (B-I). Trichoderma polysporum gives cyclosporin A, an immunosuppressive agent used in organ-transplant patients (C-IV). Streptococcus gives streptokinase, a 'clot buster' that removes clots from blood vessels (D-II).

Q108.

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: A. Over exploitation B. Co-extinction C. Mutation D. Habitat loss and fragmentation E. Migration Choose the correct option:

  • A. A, B and D only ✓
  • B. A, C and D only
  • C. A, B, C and D only
  • D. A, B and E only

Solution: A, B and D only The 'Evil Quartet' of causes of biodiversity loss is habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien species invasions and co-extinctions, so A, B and D are correct. Mutation (C) and migration (E) are not among them.

Q109.

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II : The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are true I: In leptotene the chromosomes become gradually visible under the light microscope; I is true. II: The beginning of diplotene is recognised by dissolution of the synaptonemal complex, after which the homologues of a bivalent tend to separate except at the chiasmata; II is true.

Q110.

Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

  • A. can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
  • B. promotes apical dominance.
  • C. promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • D. does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants. ✓

Solution: Auxin does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants The synthetic auxin 2,4-D kills dicotyledonous weeds but does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants such as grasses, so gardeners use it to make weed-free lawns. (A) Grass is spared because it is not affected, not because auxin makes its cells divide. (B) Apical dominance does not explain why grass is unharmed. (C) Auxin does promote abscission of older leaves, but that does not explain why grass is unharmed.

Q111.

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

  • A. Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • B. Only red flowered plants
  • C. Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants ✓
  • D. Only pink flowered plants

Solution: Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants Flower colour in snapdragon shows incomplete dominance: RR is red, Rr is pink and rr is white. Pink (Rr) × red (RR) gives RR and Rr in a 1 : 1 ratio. ∴ The progeny are red and pink flowered, with no white.

Q112.

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis? A. Light B. Chlorophyll C. CO$_2$ D. ATP E. NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. D and E only
  • B. A, B and C only
  • C. B, C and D only
  • D. C, D and E only ✓

Solution: C, D and E only The dark (biosynthetic) reaction fixes CO₂ using the ATP and NADPH made in the light reaction, so C, D and E are needed. Light (A) and chlorophyll (B) are needed for the light reaction, not directly for the dark reaction.

Q113.

The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of

  • A. Polymerase
  • B. Beta-galactosidase
  • C. Acetylase
  • D. Permease ✓

Solution: Permease The y gene of the lac operon codes for permease, which increases the permeability of the cell to β-galactosides such as lactose. β-galactosidase (z gene) hydrolyses lactose once it is inside, and transacetylase (a gene) is the third enzyme.

Q114.

Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)

  • A. (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous ✓
  • B. (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
  • C. (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • D. (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous

Solution: (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous When the gynoecium is in the centre and the other floral parts are on the rim of the thalamus at about the same level, the flower is perigynous and the ovary is half inferior. Both figures show sepals, petals and stamens borne on the rim of the thalamus at about the level of the ovary, so (a) and (b) are both perigynous.

Q115.

Match List I with List II List-I: A. Rhizopus B. Ustilago C. Puccinia D. Agaricus List-II: I. Mushroom II. Smut fungus III. Bread mould IV. Rust fungus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I ✓
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Solution: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I Rhizopus is the bread mould (A-III). Ustilago is the smut fungus (B-II). Puccinia is the rust fungus (C-IV). Agaricus is the mushroom (D-I).

Q116.

The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called

  • A. Sustainable development
  • B. in-situ conservation
  • C. Biodiversity conservation ✓
  • D. Semi-conservative method

Solution: Biodiversity conservation (the ex situ approach) Taking threatened species out of their natural habitat and protecting them in special settings such as zoos, botanical gardens and seed banks is ex situ conservation, one approach to biodiversity conservation. In situ conservation, in contrast, protects species in their natural habitat.

Q117.

Match List I with List II List-I: A. Nucleolus B. Centriole C. Leucoplasts D. Golgi apparatus List-II: I. Site of formation of glycolipid II. Organization like the cartwheel III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis IV. For storing nutrients Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I ✓
  • C. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Solution: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I The nucleolus is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis (A-III). Each centriole has an organisation like a cartwheel (B-II). Leucoplasts are colourless plastids that store nutrients (C-IV). The Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids (D-I).

Q118.

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

  • A. Somatic hybridization
  • B. Totipotency ✓
  • C. Micropropagation
  • D. Differentiation

Solution: Totipotency Totipotency is the capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant; it is the basis of tissue culture and micropropagation.

Q119.

Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

  • A. Maturation
  • B. Differentiation
  • C. Redifferentiation
  • D. Dedifferentiation ✓

Solution: Dedifferentiation Fully differentiated parenchyma cells that had lost the ability to divide regain it to form interfascicular cambium; regaining the capacity to divide is dedifferentiation.

Q120.

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F$_2$ generation. C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A, B, C, D and E
  • B. A, B and C only
  • C. A, C, D and E only ✓
  • D. B, C and D only

Solution: A, C, D and E only By the Law of Dominance, characters are controlled by discrete units called factors (D), factors occur in pairs (C), and in a dissimilar pair one factor is dominant and the other recessive (A). It explains why only one of the parental characters is expressed in the F₁ of a monohybrid cross (E). B misstates the Law of Segregation, which says alleles do not blend and both characters are recovered as such in the F₂.

Q121.

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient. C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome. E. It shows ability to replicate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A and E only
  • B. A and B only
  • C. D and E only
  • D. B and C only ✓

Solution: B and C only A piece of DNA carrying only the gene of interest has no origin of replication, so it cannot multiply on its own in the progeny cells; A and E are wrong. If it gets integrated into the genome of the recipient (B), it may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA (C). D does not describe its fate: to be inherited it must become part of the host chromosome.

Q122.

Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.

  • A. D
  • B. A
  • C. B
  • D. C ✓

Solution: C, the radicle The radicle is the part of the embryo destined to form the root; in the figure it is labelled C.

Q123.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene B. Cross of F$_1$ progeny with homozygous recessive parent C. Cross of F$_1$ progeny with any of the parents D. Number of chromosome sets in plant List II: I. Back cross II. Ploidy III. Allele IV. Test cross Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Alternative forms of a gene are alleles (A-III). Crossing the F₁ with the homozygous recessive parent is a test cross (B-IV). Crossing the F₁ with either parent is a back cross (C-I). The number of chromosome sets is the ploidy (D-II).

Q124.

Identify the set of correct statements: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar. B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. B, C, D and E only ✓
  • B. C, D and E only
  • C. A, B, C and D only
  • D. A, C, D and E only

Solution: B, C, D and E only A: Water-pollinated flowers such as those of Vallisneria are not colourful and do not produce nectar; A is wrong. B: Water lily flowers rise above the water and are pollinated by insects or wind; B is correct. C: In most water-pollinated species a mucilaginous covering protects the pollen grains from wetting; C is correct. D and E: In sea grasses such as Zostera the pollen grains are long and ribbon-like and are carried passively inside the water; D and E are correct.

Q125.

Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

  • A. Enzyme activation
  • B. Cofactor inhibition
  • C. Feedback inhibition
  • D. Competitive inhibition ✓

Solution: Competitive inhibition Malonate closely resembles the substrate succinate and competes with it for the substrate-binding site of succinic dehydrogenase, so this is competitive inhibition.

Q126.

List of endangered species was released by

  • A. IUCN ✓
  • B. GEAC
  • C. WWF
  • D. FOAM

Solution: IUCN The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) publishes the Red List of threatened and endangered species.

Q127.

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false ✓

Solution: Statement I is true but Statement II is false I: Most Bt toxins are insect-group specific and are coded by cry genes; cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms and cryIAb controls corn borer; I is true. II: The inactive protoxin is converted into the active toxin by the alkaline pH of the insect gut, not an acidic pH; II is false.

Q128.

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

  • A. Carbohydrates
  • B. Amino acids
  • C. Phospholipids ✓
  • D. Glycerides

Solution: Phospholipids Lecithin contains phosphorus and a phosphorylated organic compound, so it is a phospholipid, found in cell membranes.

Q129.

Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?

  • A. Sesbania
  • B. Datura ✓
  • C. Cassia
  • D. Pisum

Solution: Datura A Datura flower can be divided into two equal radial halves by any radial plane through the centre, so it is actinomorphic. Sesbania, Cassia and Pisum have zygomorphic flowers, which divide into two similar halves in only one vertical plane.

Q130.

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification. B. Tropical environments are more seasonal. C. More solar energy is available in tropics. D. Constant environments promote niche specialization. E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. A, B and D only
  • B. A, C, D and E only ✓
  • C. A and B only
  • D. A, B and E only

Solution: A, C, D and E only Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, giving more time for species diversification (A). Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable (E), and constant environments promote niche specialisation (D); so B is wrong. More solar energy is available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity (C).

Q131.

Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

  • A. 10 bp
  • B. 8 bp
  • C. 6 bp ✓
  • D. 4 bp

Solution: 6 bp Hind II, the first restriction endonuclease found to act at a specific DNA sequence, always cuts DNA at a particular point by recognising a sequence of six base pairs.

Q132.

Bulliform cells are responsible for

  • A. Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
  • B. Inward curling of leaves in monocots. ✓
  • C. Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • D. Increased photosynthesis in monocots.

Solution: Inward curling of leaves in monocots Bulliform cells are large, empty, colourless adaxial epidermal cells in grass leaves; when they lose turgor under water stress the leaf curls inwards, reducing water loss.

Q133.

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end;

  • A. Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator ✓
  • B. Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
  • C. Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
  • D. Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene

Solution: Promoter, structural gene, terminator A transcription unit is defined by three regions: a promoter, the structural gene and a terminator. The promoter lies towards the 5′ end (upstream) of the structural gene and the terminator towards the 3′ end (downstream), with respect to the coding strand.

Q134.

Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

  • A. Fruiting body
  • B. Morphology of mycelium
  • C. Mode of nutrition ✓
  • D. Mode of spore formation

Solution: Mode of nutrition Fungi are divided into classes on the basis of the morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies. Mode of nutrition is not used: all fungi are heterotrophic, so it does not separate the classes.

Q135.

In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?

  • A. B
  • B. C ✓
  • C. D
  • D. A

Solution: C, the guard cells Guard cells have thin outer walls (away from the stomatal pore) and highly thickened inner walls (towards the pore); in the figure these are labelled C. This uneven thickening makes the guard cells bend outwards when turgid, opening the stomatal pore.

Q136.

Match List I with List II List I (Types of Stamens): A. Monoadelphous B. Diadelphous C. Polyadelphous D. Epiphyllous List II (Example): I. Citrus II. Pea III. Lily IV. China-rose Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III ✓
  • C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Solution: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III Monoadelphous: filaments united into one bundle, as in China rose (A-IV). Diadelphous: stamens in two bundles, as in pea (B-II). Polyadelphous: stamens in more than two bundles, as in citrus (C-I). Epiphyllous: stamens attached to the perianth, as in lily (D-III).

Q137.

The DNA present in chloroplast is:

  • A. Circular, single stranded
  • B. Linear, double stranded
  • C. Circular, double stranded ✓
  • D. Linear, single stranded

Solution: Circular, double stranded The stroma of the chloroplast contains small, double-stranded circular DNA molecules and 70S ribosomes.

Q138.

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: In the members of Phaeophyceae, A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores. B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only. C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin. D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll. E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A, B, C and E only
  • B. A, B, C and D only
  • C. B, C, D and E only
  • D. A, C, D and E only ✓

Solution: A, C, D and E only Phaeophyceae reproduce asexually by biflagellate zoospores (A), store food as mannitol or laminarin (C), have chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls (D), and have a cellulosic wall covered by a gelatinous coating of algin (E). B is wrong: sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous, not oogamous only.

Q139.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Citric acid cycle B. Glycolysis C. Electron transport system D. Proton gradient List II: I. Cytoplasm II. Mitochondrial matrix III. Intermembrane space of mitochondria IV. Inner mitochondrial membrane Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III ✓
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Solution: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Citric acid cycle: mitochondrial matrix (A-II). Glycolysis: cytoplasm (B-I). Electron transport system: inner mitochondrial membrane (C-IV). Proton gradient: protons are pumped into the intermembrane space, so the gradient builds up there (D-III).

Q140.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In C$_3$ plants, some O$_2$ binds to RuBisCO, hence CO$_2$ fixation is decreased. Statement II: In C$_4$ plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false ✓

Solution: Statement I is true but Statement II is false I: In C₃ plants some O₂ binds to RuBisCO (photorespiration), so CO₂ fixation is decreased; I is true. II: Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCO, and in bundle sheath cells the CO₂ concentration at the enzyme site is kept high, so C₄ plants show no photorespiration; II is false.

Q141.

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?

  • A. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5$'$ $\rightarrow$ 3$'$ direction ✓
  • B. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3$'$ $\rightarrow$ 5$'$
  • C. The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5$'$ $\rightarrow$ 3$'$
  • D. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5$'$ $\rightarrow$ 3$'$ as well as 3$'$ $\rightarrow$ 5$'$ direction

Solution: DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in the 5′ → 3′ direction DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in one direction only, 5′ → 3′, so one strand is made continuously and the other discontinuously as Okazaki fragments. (B) Polymerisation is 5′ → 3′, not 3′ → 5′. (C) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase carries out transcription, not the polymerisation of DNA in replication. (D) Polymerisation never runs 3′ → 5′.

Q142.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Robert May B. Alexander von Humboldt C. Paul Ehrlich D. David Tilman List II: I. Species-Area relationship II. Long term ecosystem experiment using out door plots III. Global species diversity at about 7 million IV. Rivet popper hypothesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II ✓
  • D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Robert May estimated global species diversity at about 7 million (A-III). Alexander von Humboldt described the species–area relationship (B-I). Paul Ehrlich gave the rivet popper hypothesis (C-IV). David Tilman ran long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots (D-II).

Q143.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Frederick Griffith B. Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod C. Har Gobind Khorana D. Meselson & Stahl List II: I. Genetic code II. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication III. Transformation IV. Lac operon Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Frederick Griffith discovered transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae (A-III). Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod worked out the lac operon (B-IV). Har Gobind Khorana developed the chemical method of synthesising RNA with defined base combinations, which helped decipher the genetic code (C-I). Meselson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication (D-II).

Q144.

In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is $100x$ (kcal m$^{-2}$) yr$^{-1}$, what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

  • A. $\dfrac{100x}{3x}$ (kcal m$^{-2}$) yr$^{-1}$
  • B. $\dfrac{x}{10}$ (kcal m$^{-2}$) yr$^{-1}$
  • C. $x$ (kcal m$^{-2}$) yr$^{-1}$
  • D. $10x$ (kcal m$^{-2}$) yr$^{-1}$ ✓

Solution: $10x$ (kcal m⁻²) yr⁻¹ The net production of one trophic level is what the next level takes in, so the NPP of the first level, $100x$, is the GPP of the second level. By the 10 per cent law, only 10% of this energy is passed on to the next level: $10\% \times 100x = 10x$. ∴ GPP of the third trophic level $= 10x$ (kcal m⁻²) yr⁻¹

Q145.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Rose B. Pea C. Cotton D. Mango List II: I. Twisted aestivation II. Perigynous flower III. Drupe IV. Marginal placentation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Solution: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III Rose has a perigynous flower, with a half-inferior ovary (A-II). In pea the ovules are borne in two rows on a ridge along the ventral suture: marginal placentation (B-IV). Cotton petals show twisted aestivation (C-I). Mango fruit is a drupe (D-III).

Q146.

Identify the correct description about the given figure:

  • A. Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
  • B. Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens. ✓
  • C. Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
  • D. Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.

Solution: Wind-pollinated inflorescence showing flowers with well-exposed stamens The figure shows a wind-pollinated plant: a compact inflorescence with well-exposed stamens. Well-exposed stamens shed pollen into the moving air, so the flowers are not cleistogamous and complete autogamy does not occur.

Q147.

Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

  • A. Isocitrate $\rightarrow$ $\alpha$-ketoglutaric acid
  • B. Malic acid $\rightarrow$ Oxaloacetic acid
  • C. Succinic acid $\rightarrow$ Malic acid
  • D. Succinyl-CoA $\rightarrow$ Succinic acid ✓

Solution: Succinyl-CoA → succinic acid Succinyl-CoA → succinic acid releases energy as GTP (ATP) by substrate-level phosphorylation; no NAD⁺ or FAD is reduced, so the substrate is not oxidised. (A) Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid is an oxidative decarboxylation that reduces NAD⁺ to NADH. (B) Malic acid → oxaloacetic acid is an oxidation that reduces NAD⁺ to NADH. (C) Succinic acid → malic acid passes through an oxidation (succinate to fumarate) that reduces FAD to FADH₂.

Q148.

Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?

  • A. Abscisic acid
  • B. Auxin
  • C. Gibberellin ✓
  • D. Cytokinin

Solution: Gibberellin Spraying sugarcane with gibberellins increases the length of the stem, where sugar is stored, raising the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre.

Q149.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: A. GLUT-4 B. Insulin C. Trypsin D. Collagen List-II: I. Hormone II. Enzyme III. Intercellular ground substance IV. Enables glucose transport into cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III ✓
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Solution: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III GLUT-4 enables glucose transport into cells (A-IV). Insulin is a hormone (B-I). Trypsin is an enzyme (C-II). Collagen is an intercellular ground substance (D-III).

Q150.

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

  • A. Pollens
  • B. Callus
  • C. Somatic embryos
  • D. Protoplasts ✓

Solution: Protoplasts Protoplasts (cells whose walls have been digested away) from two plant varieties are fused to form a hybrid protoplast, which grows into a somatic hybrid.

Q151.

The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of the

  • A. Divergent evolution
  • B. Adaptive radiation
  • C. Natural selection
  • D. Convergent evolution ✓

Solution: Convergent evolution Flippers of penguins and dolphins do the same job but are not anatomically similar; such analogous structures result from convergent evolution. Divergent evolution produces homologous structures instead, and adaptive radiation is the evolution of many species from one point into different habitats.

Q152.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Pleurobrachia B. Radula C. Stomochord D. Air bladder List II: I. Mollusca II. Ctenophora III. Osteichthyes IV. Hemichordata Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III ✓
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Solution: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Pleurobrachia is a ctenophore, a comb jelly (A-II). The radula is the file-like rasping feeding organ of molluscs (B-I). The stomochord, a rudimentary structure like a notochord in the collar region, is found in hemichordates (C-IV). The air bladder, which regulates buoyancy, is found in bony fishes, Osteichthyes (D-III).

Q153.

Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

  • A. Ampulla
  • B. Uterine fundus ✓
  • C. Isthmus
  • D. Infundibulum

Solution: Uterine fundus The fundus is the dome-shaped upper part of the uterus, so it is not part of the fallopian tube. The tube runs from the funnel-shaped infundibulum near the ovary, through the wider ampulla, to the narrow isthmus that joins the uterus.

Q154.

Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres C. AV node D. Bundle branches E. SA node Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below

  • A. E-A-D-B-C
  • B. E-C-A-D-B ✓
  • C. A-E-C-B-D
  • D. B-D-E-C-A

Solution: E-C-A-D-B The impulse starts at the SA node (pacemaker) and passes to the AV node, then the AV bundle, its right and left bundle branches, and finally the Purkinje fibres: E → C → A → D → B.

Q155.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity. Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false ✓

Solution: Statement I is true but Statement II is false I: The hymen can be torn by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of a vaginal tampon or active sports, and in some women it persists even after coitus, so it is not a reliable indicator of virginity; I is true. II: Since it can tear in these other ways, it is not torn during the first coitus only; II is false.

Q156.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. $\alpha$-1 antitrypsin B. Cry IAb C. Cry IAc D. Enzyme replacement therapy List II: I. Cotton bollworm II. ADA deficiency III. Emphysema IV. Corn borer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II α-1 antitrypsin, produced by transgenic animals, is used to treat emphysema (A-III). cryIAb codes for the Bt toxin that controls corn borer (B-IV). cryIAc codes for the Bt toxin that controls cotton bollworms (C-I). ADA deficiency can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, giving functional ADA by injection (D-II).

Q157.

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male. Reason R : Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A is false but R is true ✓
  • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is true but R is false

Solution: A is false but R is true A: FSH acts on ovarian follicles in females, but in males it acts on Sertoli cells; Leydig cells respond to LH; A is false. R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen, and Leydig (interstitial) cells secrete androgens; R is true.

Q158.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Cocaine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Marijuana List II: I. Effective sedative in surgery II. Cannabis sativa III. Erythroxylum IV. Papaver somniferum Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Cocaine is obtained from the coca plant, Erythroxylum coca (A-III). Heroin is diacetylmorphine, made by acetylation of morphine from the poppy, Papaver somniferum (B-IV). Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller, useful in patients who have undergone surgery (C-I). Marijuana is obtained from the inflorescences of Cannabis sativa (D-II).

Q159.

Match List I with List II : List-I: A. Lipase B. Nuclease C. Protease D. Amylase List-II: I. Peptide bond II. Ester bond III. Glycosidic bond IV. Phosphodiester bond Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓

Solution: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III Lipase hydrolyses the ester bonds of lipids (A-II). Nuclease hydrolyses the phosphodiester bonds of nucleic acids (B-IV). Protease hydrolyses the peptide bonds of proteins (C-I). Amylase hydrolyses the glycosidic bonds of starch (D-III).

Q160.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Pterophyllum B. Myxine C. Pristis D. Exocoetus List II: I. Hag fish II. Saw fish III. Angel fish IV. Flying fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV ✓
  • D. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Pterophyllum is the angel fish (A-III). Myxine is the hagfish (B-I). Pristis is the sawfish (C-II). Exocoetus is the flying fish (D-IV).

Q161.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Fibrous joints B. Cartilaginous joints C. Hinge joints D. Ball and socket joints List II: I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, rotational movement III. Skull, don't allow any movement IV. Knee, help in locomotion Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II ✓
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Fibrous joints, such as the sutures between the flat skull bones, allow no movement (A-III). Cartilaginous joints, between adjacent vertebrae, allow limited movement (B-I). The knee is a hinge joint, a synovial joint that helps in locomotion (C-IV). The joint between the humerus and the pectoral girdle is a ball and socket joint, allowing rotational movement (D-II).

Q162.

Following are the stages of cell division : A. Gap 2 phase B. Cytokinesis C. Synthesis phase D. Karyokinesis E. Gap 1 phase Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below :

  • A. E-C-A-D-B ✓
  • B. C-E-D-A-B
  • C. E-B-D-A-C
  • D. B-D-E-A-C

Solution: E-C-A-D-B Interphase runs G₁ (E) → S (C) → G₂ (A); the M phase follows, with karyokinesis (D) before cytokinesis (B): E → C → A → D → B.

Q163.

The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

  • A. Temperature independent plasmid
  • B. Tumour inhibiting plasmid
  • C. Tumor independent plasmid
  • D. Tumor inducing plasmid ✓

Solution: Tumour-inducing plasmid Ti stands for tumour-inducing: the plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens delivers its T-DNA into dicot plant cells and turns them into tumour cells. It has been modified into a cloning vector that no longer causes disease but still delivers genes into plants.

Q164.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Pons B. Hypothalamus C. Medulla D. Cerebellum List II: I. Provides additional space for Neurons, regulates posture and balance. II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions. III. Connects different regions of the brain. IV. Neuro secretory cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I ✓
  • D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I The pons consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain (A-III). The hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells that secrete hypothalamic hormones (B-IV). The medulla controls respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions (C-II). The cerebellum's convoluted surface provides additional space for many more neurons, and it maintains posture and balance (D-I).

Q165.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Axoneme B. Cartwheel pattern C. Crista D. Satellite List II: I. Centriole II. Cilia and flagella III. Chromosome IV. Mitochondria Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III ✓
  • B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • C. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Solution: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III The axoneme is the core of microtubules in cilia and flagella (A-II). A centriole has a cartwheel-like organisation of nine peripheral triplet fibrils (B-I). Cristae are infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane (C-IV). A satellite is the small fragment seen on some chromosomes beyond a secondary constriction (D-III).

Q166.

Consider the following statements : A. Annelids are true coelomates B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. D only
  • B. B only
  • C. A only ✓
  • D. C only

Solution: A only A: Annelids have a true coelom lined by mesoderm, so A is correct. B: Poriferans have a cellular level of organisation and no coelom of any kind, so they are not pseudocoelomates. C: Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates, not acoelomates. D: Platyhelminthes are acoelomates, not pseudocoelomates.

Q167.

Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

  • A. Glucagon ✓
  • B. Cortisol
  • C. Testosterone
  • D. Progesterone

Solution: Glucagon Glucagon is a peptide hormone secreted by the α-cells of the islets of Langerhans. Cortisol, testosterone and progesterone are steroid hormones.

Q168.

Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes. Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false ✓
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are false I: The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes; it is the ascending limb that is impermeable to water; I is false. II: The PCT is lined by simple cuboidal, not columnar, brush border epithelium; II is false.

Q169.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Common cold B. Haemozoin C. Widal test D. Allergy List II: I. Plasmodium II. Typhoid III. Rhinoviruses IV. Dust mites Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV ✓

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Common cold is caused by rhinoviruses (A-III). Haemozoin, a toxin released when infected RBCs rupture, causes the chill and high fever of malaria due to Plasmodium (B-I). The Widal test confirms typhoid fever (C-II). Dust mites are a common allergen causing allergy (D-IV).

Q170.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Expiratory capacity B. Functional residual capacity C. Vital capacity D. Inspiratory capacity List II: I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Solution: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III Expiratory capacity = tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume (A-II). Functional residual capacity = expiratory reserve volume + residual volume (B-IV). Vital capacity = expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume (C-I). Inspiratory capacity = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume (D-III).

Q171.

Match List I with List II : List I (Sub Phases of Prophase I): A. Diakinesis B. Pachytene C. Zygotene D. Leptotene List II (Specific Characters): I. Synaptonemal complex formation II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata III. Chromosomes look like thin threads IV. Appearance of recombination nodules Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • D. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III ✓

Solution: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III Diakinesis: terminalisation of chiasmata is completed (A-II). Pachytene: recombination nodules appear, the sites of crossing over (B-IV). Zygotene: homologous chromosomes pair and the synaptonemal complex forms (C-I). Leptotene: chromosomes are seen as thin threads (D-III).

Q172.

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. A is not correct but R is correct
  • B. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A ✓
  • C. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • D. A is correct but R is not correct

Solution: Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A A: Doctors recommend breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth for bringing up a healthy baby; A is correct. R: Colostrum, the milk of the first few days of lactation, contains several antibodies (IgA) absolutely essential to develop resistance in the newborn, so R is correct and explains A.

Q173.

Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

  • A. Constant gene pool ✓
  • B. Genetic recombination
  • C. Genetic drift
  • D. Gene migration

Solution: Constant gene pool Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium means allele frequencies stay constant, i.e. the gene pool is constant, so a constant gene pool does not disturb it. Gene migration (gene flow), genetic drift and genetic recombination change allele frequencies and so affect the equilibrium.

Q174.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Typhoid B. Leishmaniasis C. Ringworm D. Filariasis List II: I. Fungus II. Nematode III. Protozoa IV. Bacteria Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II ✓
  • D. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Solution: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi (A-IV). Leishmaniasis is caused by the protozoan Leishmania (B-III). Ringworm is caused by fungi of the genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton (C-I). Filariasis is caused by the nematodes Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi (D-II).

Q175.

Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent) A. Homo habilis B. Homo sapiens C. Homo neanderthalensis D. Homo erectus Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

  • A. A-D-C-B ✓
  • B. D-A-C-B
  • C. B-A-D-C
  • D. C-B-D-A

Solution: A-D-C-B Homo habilis (about 2 million years ago) → Homo erectus (about 1.5 million years ago) → Neanderthal man (100,000 to 40,000 years ago) → Homo sapiens: A-D-C-B.

Q176.

The following diagram showing restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of '$X$' and '$Y$' genes :

  • A. Gene '$X$' is responsible for recognitions sites and '$Y$' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
  • B. The gene '$X$' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and '$Y$' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
  • C. The gene '$X$' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and '$Y$' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid. ✓
  • D. The gene '$X$' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and '$Y$' for resistance to antibiotics.

Solution: X controls the copy number of the linked DNA; Y codes for a protein involved in plasmid replication In pBR322, X is ori and Y is rop. ori is where replication starts and it controls the copy number of the linked DNA; rop codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.

Q177.

Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

  • A. Low pCO$_2$ and High temperature
  • B. High pO$_2$ and High pCO$_2$
  • C. High pO$_2$ and Lesser H$^{+}$ concentration ✓
  • D. Low pCO$_2$ and High H$^{+}$ concentration

Solution: High pO₂ and lesser H⁺ concentration In the alveoli high pO₂, low pCO₂, lesser H⁺ concentration and lower temperature all favour the formation of oxyhaemoglobin. (A) High temperature favours dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin. (B) High pCO₂ favours dissociation. (D) High H⁺ concentration favours dissociation.

Q178.

In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on

  • A. 11$^{\text{th}}$ segment
  • B. 5$^{\text{th}}$ segment
  • C. 10$^{\text{th}}$ segment ✓
  • D. 8$^{\text{th}}$ and 9$^{\text{th}}$ segment

Solution: 10th segment In both sexes of the cockroach the 10th abdominal segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous anal cerci.

Q179.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Down's syndrome B. $\alpha$-Thalassemia C. $\beta$-Thalassemia D. Klinefelter's syndrome List II: I. 11$^{\text{th}}$ chromosome II. 'X' chromosome III. 21$^{\text{st}}$ chromosome IV. 16$^{\text{th}}$ chromosome Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 (A-III). α-thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes, HBA1 and HBA2, on chromosome 16 (B-IV). β-thalassemia is controlled by a single gene, HBB, on chromosome 11 (C-I). Klinefelter's syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome, giving 47, XXY (D-II).

Q180.

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

  • A. Vaults ✓
  • B. Coitus interruptus
  • C. Periodic abstinence
  • D. Lactational amenorrhea

Solution: Vaults Vaults are barrier methods: rubber devices inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus, so they are not a natural method. Periodic abstinence, coitus interruptus (withdrawal) and lactational amenorrhea are natural methods, which avoid the meeting of ovum and sperm without any device.

Q181.

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Muscular dystrophy E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. C, D & E only
  • B. A, B & D only
  • C. A, B & E only ✓
  • D. B, C & E only

Solution: A, B and E only Myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus are autoimmune disorders, in which the immune system attacks the body's own cells; so A, B and E. Gout (C) is inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals. Muscular dystrophy (D) is progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle, mostly due to a genetic disorder.

Q182.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • A. Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system
  • B. A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
  • C. Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
  • D. Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures ✓

Solution: Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures (the incorrect statement) Bioreactors are vessels in which large volumes (100–1000 litres) of culture are processed, so they are used for large-scale, not small-scale, production. (A) A stirred-tank bioreactor has an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and a foam control system, along with temperature and pH control and sampling ports. (B) A bioreactor provides optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen) for achieving the desired product. (C) The most commonly used bioreactors are of the stirring type.

Q183.

Match List I with List II List I: A. Non-medicated IUD B. Copper releasing IUD C. Hormone releasing IUD D. Implants List II: I. Multiload 375 II. Progestogens III. Lippes loop IV. LNG-20 Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II ✓
  • B. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • D. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD (A-III). Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD (B-I). LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD (C-IV). Implants placed under the skin contain progestogens alone or with estrogen (D-II).

Q184.

Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template? 3$'$TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5$'$

  • A. 5$'$ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3$'$
  • B. 5$'$AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3$'$ ✓
  • C. 5$'$AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3$'$
  • D. 5$'$AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3$'$

Solution: 5′-AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU-3′ RNA is made complementary and antiparallel to the template, with uracil in place of thymine (A pairs with U, T with A, G with C, C with G). Template 3′-TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA-5′ gives RNA 5′-AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU-3′. (A) It contains T, so it is DNA, not RNA. (C) It has AA at positions 6 and 7, where the template's GG must give CC. (D) It has G at position 17, where the template's A must give U.

Q185.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. ✓

Solution: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect I: The left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres, the corpus callosum; I is correct. II: The brain stem is formed by the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata; the cerebrum is part of the forebrain; II is incorrect.

Q186.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely. Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. ✓
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Solution: Statement I is false but Statement II is true I: Gause's principle is about closely related species competing for the same resources, not different resources; I is false. II: The competitively inferior species is eventually eliminated, which may be true if resources are limiting; II is true.

Q187.

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis. The flow chart runs: GnRH branches into two arms. The left arm is GnRH $\rightarrow$ LH $\rightarrow$ (B) $\rightarrow$ Androgens $\rightarrow$ Formation of spermatids. The right arm is GnRH $\rightarrow$ (A) $\rightarrow$ (C) $\rightarrow$ Factors $\rightarrow$ (D).

  • A. ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
  • B. FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis. ✓
  • C. ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
  • D. FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.

Solution: FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis GnRH stimulates the pituitary to release LH and FSH. LH acts on the Leydig cells (B), which secrete androgens that stimulate spermatogenesis. FSH (A) acts on the Sertoli cells (C), which secrete factors that help in spermiogenesis (D), the change of spermatids into sperms.

Q188.

The following are the statements about non-chordates: A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. B. Notochord is absent. C. Central nervous system is dorsal. D. Heart is dorsal if present. E. Post anal tail is absent. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. B, C & D only
  • B. A & C only
  • C. A, B & D only
  • D. B, D & E only ✓

Solution: B, D and E only Non-chordates have no notochord (B), a dorsal heart if a heart is present (D) and no post-anal tail (E). A pharynx perforated by gill slits (A) and a dorsal central nervous system (C) are chordate features; in non-chordates gill slits are absent and the central nervous system is ventral, solid and double.

Q189.

Match List I with List II: List I: A. Unicellular glandular epithelium B. Compound epithelium C. Multicellular glandular epithelium D. Endocrine glandular epithelium List II: I. Salivary glands II. Pancreas III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Goblet cells of the alimentary canal are unicellular glands (A-III). Compound epithelium, with more than one layer of cells, covers the moist surface of the buccal cavity (B-IV). Salivary glands are multicellular glands (C-I). The pancreas has endocrine glandular epithelium in its islets of Langerhans (D-II).

Q190.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. T-P gap List II: I. Heart muscles are electrically silent. II. Depolarisation of ventricles. III. Depolarisation of atria. IV. Repolarisation of ventricles. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • B. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I ✓
  • D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Solution: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I P wave: depolarisation of the atria (A-III). QRS complex: depolarisation of the ventricles (B-II). T wave: repolarisation of the ventricles (C-IV). T–P gap: the heart muscle is electrically silent (D-I).

Q191.

Match List I with List II : List I: A. Exophthalmic goiter B. Acromegaly C. Cushing's syndrome D. Cretinism List II: I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia. II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth. III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls. IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II ✓
  • B. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • C. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Solution: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Exophthalmic goitre (Graves' disease) is due to hypersecretion of thyroid hormones, with protruding eyeballs (A-III). Acromegaly is due to excess growth hormone in adults (B-IV). Cushing's syndrome is due to excess cortisol, with moon face and hyperglycaemia (C-I). Cretinism is due to hyposecretion of thyroid hormone in early life, with stunted growth (D-II).

Q192.

Match List I with List II: List I: A. Mesozoic Era B. Proterozoic Era C. Cenozoic Era D. Paleozoic Era List II: I. Lower invertebrates II. Fish & Amphibia III. Birds & Reptiles IV. Mammals Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II ✓
  • B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • D. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Solution: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Proterozoic era: lower invertebrates (B-I). Paleozoic era: fishes and amphibians (D-II). Mesozoic era: reptiles and birds (A-III). Cenozoic era: mammals (C-IV).

Q193.

Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach. List I: A. The structures used for storing of food B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of foregut and midgut. C. Ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin filaments at junction of midgut and hindgut. D. The structures used for grinding the food. List II: I. Gizzard II. Gastric Caeca III. Malpighian tubules IV. Crop Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • B. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I ✓
  • C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Solution: A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I The crop stores food (A-IV). A ring of 6–8 blind gastric caeca at the junction of foregut and midgut secretes digestive juice (B-II). A ring of 100–150 yellow Malpighian tubules at the junction of midgut and hindgut removes nitrogenous wastes (C-III). The gizzard, with its chitinous plates, grinds the food (D-I).

Q194.

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced. Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. ✓
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Solution: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct I: The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced; I is correct. II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes; II is correct.

Q195.

Match List I with List II: List I: A. RNA polymerase III B. Termination of transcription C. Splicing of Exons D. TATA box List II: I. snRNPs II. Promotor III. Rho factor IV. SnRNAs, tRNA Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II ✓
  • B. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Solution: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs (A-IV). In bacteria the rho factor brings about termination of transcription (B-III). Introns are removed and exons joined by snRNPs in the spliceosome (C-I). The TATA box is part of the promoter (D-II).

Q196.

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

  • A. Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
  • B. Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
  • C. Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
  • D. Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla. ✓

Solution: The loop of Henle of a juxtamedullary nephron runs deep into the medulla In juxtamedullary nephrons the loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla. (A) Cortical nephrons are the majority; juxtamedullary nephrons are fewer. (B) The columns of Bertini are extensions of the cortex between the medullary pyramids, not the location of juxtamedullary nephrons. (C) The renal corpuscle of every nephron, juxtamedullary ones included, lies in the cortex, not the medulla.

Q197.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both double membranes bound organelles. Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared chloroplast. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • C. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. ✓

Solution: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane-bound organelles; I is correct. II: NCERT describes the inner membrane of the chloroplast as the relatively less permeable one, so saying the mitochondrial inner membrane is less permeable than the chloroplast's is incorrect.

Q198.

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps : A. Substrate enzyme complex formation. B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate. C. Release of products. D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken. E. Substrate binding to active site. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A. E, D, C, B, A
  • B. E, A, D, C, B ✓
  • C. A, E, B, D, C
  • D. B, A, C, D, E

Solution: E, A, D, C, B The substrate binds to the active site (E), and the enzyme alters its shape to fit tightly around it, forming the enzyme–substrate complex (A). The active site breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate, forming the enzyme–product complex (D). The products are released (C), and the free enzyme is ready to bind another substrate molecule (B). ∴ E, A, D, C, B

Q199.

As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B$^{+}$, mother is A$^{+}$ and child is O$^{+}$. Their respective genotype can be A. I$^{B}$i / I$^{A}$i / ii B. I$^{B}$I$^{B}$ / I$^{A}$I$^{A}$ / ii C. I$^{A}$I$^{B}$ / iI$^{A}$ / I$^{B}$i D. I$^{A}$i / I$^{B}$i / I$^{A}$i E. iI$^{B}$ / iI$^{A}$ / I$^{A}$I$^{B}$ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • A. D & E only
  • B. A only ✓
  • C. B only
  • D. C & B only

Solution: A only: $I^{B}i$ / $I^{A}i$ / $ii$ A group O child is $ii$, so each parent must carry an $i$ allele. ∴ The group B father is $I^{B}i$ and the group A mother is $I^{A}i$, which is set A. B: $I^{B}I^{B}$ and $I^{A}I^{A}$ parents have no $i$ to pass on, so they cannot have a group O child. C makes the father $I^{A}I^{B}$ (group AB), D makes the father and child group A, and E makes the child $I^{A}I^{B}$ (group AB).

Know the answers. Now beat the exam.

Full-length mock tests, an AI study workbook and a free rank predictor — built for NEET, JEE & boards.

Start practising free · Predict your rank