Not yet confirmed against the official key.
Q1.
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since
- A. A large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
- B. A large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
- C. A large aperture provides a better resolution.
- D. All of the above ✓
Solution: All of the above Resolving power of a telescope $= \dfrac{D}{1.22\lambda}$, so a large aperture $D$ gives better resolution (C). Light gathered is proportional to the area of the objective, so a large aperture gathers more light (B). More light makes faint objects visible and the image brighter and clearer (A). A large focal length of the objective also gives large magnifying power, $m = \dfrac{f_o}{f_e}$.
Q2.
A thick current carrying cable of radius '$R$' carries current '$I$' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field $B(r)$ due to the cable with the distance '$r$' from the axis of the cable is represented by
- A. A straight line rising continuously with $r$
- B. A straight line rising to a peak at $r = R$, then falling away as a hyperbola ✓
- C. A curve rising and saturating at a constant value
- D. A curve rising ever more steeply with $r$
Solution: Rises as a straight line to a peak at $r = R$, then falls as a hyperbola Ampere's circuital law: $\oint \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{l} = \mu_0 I_{\text{enclosed}}$ Inside ($r < R$) the enclosed current is $I\dfrac{r^2}{R^2}$, so $B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I r}{2\pi R^2}$, i.e. $B \propto r$. Outside ($r \ge R$) all of $I$ is enclosed, so $B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r}$, i.e. $B \propto \dfrac{1}{r}$. ∴ $B$ rises linearly to its maximum $\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi R}$ at $r = R$, then falls off as a hyperbola.
Q3.
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is
- A. 6.28 s
- B. 3.14 s
- C. 0.628 s ✓
- D. 0.0628 s
Solution: $0.628\ \text{s}$ Spring constant $k = \dfrac{F}{x} = \dfrac{10\ \text{N}}{0.05\ \text{m}} = 200\ \text{N m}^{-1}$ Time period $T = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}} = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{2}{200}}\ \text{s} = \dfrac{2\pi}{10}\ \text{s}$ ∴ $T = 0.628\ \text{s}$
Q4.
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?
($g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$)
- A. 8.1 kW ✓
- B. 12.3 kW
- C. 7.0 kW
- D. 10.2 kW
Solution: $8.1\ \text{kW}$ Input power $= \dfrac{dm}{dt}\,gh = 15 \times 10 \times 60\ \text{W} = 9000\ \text{W}$ 10% is lost to friction, so power generated $= 0.9 \times 9000\ \text{W} = 8100\ \text{W}$ ∴ Power generated $= 8.1\ \text{kW}$
Q5.
Polar molecules are the molecules
- A. Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges
- B. Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
- C. Having a permanent electric dipole moment ✓
- D. Having zero dipole moment
Solution: Molecules having a permanent electric dipole moment In a polar molecule the centres of positive and negative charge do not coincide, so it has a permanent dipole moment (e.g. H₂O). (A) describes a non-polar molecule, which gets an induced dipole moment only when placed in an electric field.
Q6.
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.
(B) The potential barrier of $p$-$n$ junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
- A. (A) and (B) both are incorrect
- B. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. ✓
- C. (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
- D. (A) and (B) both are correct.
Solution: Statement (A) is correct and statement (B) is incorrect Statement (A) is correct: after breakdown in reverse bias the voltage across a zener diode stays constant, so it is used reverse-biased as a voltage regulator. Statement (B) is incorrect: the barrier potential of a silicon p-n junction is about 0.7 V, so it does not lie between 0.1 V and 0.3 V.
Q7.
An inductor of inductance $L$, a capacitor of capacitance $C$ and a resistor of resistance '$R$' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference '$V$' volts as shown in figure.
Potential difference across $L$, $C$ and $R$ is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through $LCR$ series circuit is $10\sqrt{2}$ A. The impedance of the circuit is
- A. $\dfrac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\ \Omega$
- B. $4\ \Omega$
- C. $5\ \Omega$ ✓
- D. $4\sqrt{2}\ \Omega$
Solution: $5\ \Omega$ Net rms voltage $V = \sqrt{V_R^2 + (V_L - V_C)^2} = \sqrt{40^2 + 30^2}\ \text{V} = 50\ \text{V}$ rms current $I = \dfrac{I_0}{\sqrt{2}} = \dfrac{10\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}\ \text{A} = 10\ \text{A}$ ∴ Impedance $Z = \dfrac{V}{I} = \dfrac{50}{10}\ \Omega = 5\ \Omega$
Q8.
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is $v$. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is
- A. $2v$
- B. $3v$
- C. $4v$ ✓
- D. $v$
Solution: $4v$ Escape velocity $v_e = \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{R}}$ with $M = \tfrac{4}{3}\pi R^3\rho$ gives $v_e = R\sqrt{\dfrac{8\pi G\rho}{3}}$ For the same density, $v_e \propto R$. ∴ For radius $4R$, escape velocity $= 4v$
Q9.
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is
- A. 0.026 cm
- B. 0.26 cm
- C. 0.052 cm ✓
- D. 0.52 cm
Solution: $0.052\ \text{cm}$ Least count $= \dfrac{\text{pitch}}{\text{number of circular divisions}} = \dfrac{1\ \text{mm}}{100} = 0.01\ \text{mm}$ Diameter $= \text{MSR} + \text{CSR} \times \text{LC} = 0 + 52 \times 0.01\ \text{mm} = 0.52\ \text{mm}$ ∴ Diameter $= 0.052\ \text{cm}$
Q10.
A cup of coffee cools from 90$^{\circ}$C to 80$^{\circ}$C in $t$ minutes, when the room temperature is 20$^{\circ}$C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80$^{\circ}$C to 60$^{\circ}$C at a room temperature same at 20$^{\circ}$C is
- A. $\dfrac{13}{5}t$ ✓
- B. $\dfrac{10}{13}t$
- C. $\dfrac{5}{13}t$
- D. $\dfrac{13}{10}t$
Solution: $\tfrac{13}{5}t$ Newton's law of cooling (average form): $\dfrac{T_1 - T_2}{t} = K\left(\dfrac{T_1 + T_2}{2} - T_s\right)$ First cup: $\dfrac{90 - 80}{t} = K(85 - 20)$, so $K = \dfrac{10}{65t} = \dfrac{2}{13t}$ Second cup: $\dfrac{80 - 60}{t'} = K(70 - 20) = \dfrac{100}{13t}$ ∴ $t' = \dfrac{20 \times 13t}{100} = \dfrac{13}{5}t$
Q11.
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be
- A. $\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$ ✓
- B. $\dfrac{2}{3}$
- C. $\dfrac{2}{3\sqrt{2}}$
- D. $\dfrac{1}{2}$
Solution: $\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$ Activity after time $t$: $A = A_0\left(\tfrac{1}{2}\right)^{t/T_{1/2}}$ $\dfrac{A}{A_0} = \left(\tfrac{1}{2}\right)^{150/100} = \left(\tfrac{1}{2}\right)^{3/2}$ ∴ $\dfrac{A}{A_0} = \dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$
Q12.
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of $3.3 \times 10^{-3}$ watt will be ($h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34}$ J s)
- A. $10^{17}$
- B. $10^{16}$ ✓
- C. $10^{15}$
- D. $10^{18}$
Solution: $10^{16}$ Energy of one photon $= \dfrac{hc}{\lambda}$, so photons emitted per second $= \dfrac{P\lambda}{hc}$ $= \dfrac{3.3 \times 10^{-3} \times 600 \times 10^{-9}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}$ ∴ About $10^{16}$ photons per second
Q13.
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field '$\vec{E}$' in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is '$d$' and the area of each plate is '$A$', the energy stored in the capacitor is
($\varepsilon_0$ = permittivity of free space)
- A. $\varepsilon_0 E A d$
- B. $\dfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2} A d$ ✓
- C. $\dfrac{E^{2}Ad}{\varepsilon_0}$
- D. $\dfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}$
Solution: $\tfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^2 Ad$ Energy density of an electric field $u = \tfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^2$ The field is uniform over the volume between the plates, $Ad$. ∴ Energy stored $U = u \times Ad = \tfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^2 Ad$
Q14.
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
- A. $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}^{2}]$ ✓
- B. $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}^{-1}]$
- C. $[\text{F}][\text{A}^{-1}][\text{T}]$
- D. $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}]$
Solution: $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}^{2}]$ Let $[E] = [\text{F}]^a[\text{A}]^b[\text{T}]^c$, so $[\text{ML}^2\text{T}^{-2}] = [\text{MLT}^{-2}]^a[\text{LT}^{-2}]^b[\text{T}]^c$ Powers of M: $a = 1$; powers of L: $a + b = 2$, so $b = 1$ Powers of T: $-2a - 2b + c = -2$, so $c = 2$ ∴ $[E] = [\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}^2]$ (energy = force × distance, and distance has the dimensions of acceleration × time²)
Q15.
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is
Two capacitors of capacitance $C$ form the upper and lower branches between terminals $A$ and $B$, and a third capacitor $C$ is connected vertically between the right-hand ends of those two branches.
- A. $2C$ ✓
- B. $\dfrac{C}{2}$
- C. $\dfrac{3C}{2}$
- D. $3C$
Solution: $2C$ The right-hand ends of both branches are joined to B by wire, so both plates of the third capacitor are at the same potential. It stores no charge and drops out of the circuit. The other two capacitors are in parallel between A and B: $C_{AB} = C + C = 2C$
Q16.
A capacitor of capacitance '$C$', is connected across an ac source of voltage $V$, given by
$$V = V_0\sin\omega t$$
The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by
- A. $I_d = \dfrac{V_0}{\omega C}\cos\omega t$
- B. $I_d = \dfrac{V_0}{\omega C}\sin\omega t$
- C. $I_d = V_0\omega C\sin\omega t$
- D. $I_d = V_0\omega C\cos\omega t$ ✓
Solution: $I_d = V_0\omega C\cos\omega t$ Displacement current equals the rate of change of charge on the plates: $I_d = \varepsilon_0\dfrac{d\phi_E}{dt} = \dfrac{dq}{dt} = C\dfrac{dV}{dt}$ ∴ $I_d = C\dfrac{d}{dt}(V_0\sin\omega t) = V_0\omega C\cos\omega t$
Q17.
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
- A. 21.6 cm
- B. 64 cm
- C. 62 cm
- D. 60 cm ✓
Solution: $60\ \text{cm}$ In a potentiometer the emf is proportional to the balancing length: $\dfrac{E_1}{E_2} = \dfrac{l_1}{l_2}$ ∴ $l_2 = 36\ \text{cm} \times \dfrac{2.5}{1.5} = 60\ \text{cm}$
Q18.
Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.
Column-I:
(A) Drift Velocity
(B) Electrical Resistivity
(C) Relaxation Period
(D) Current Density
Column-II:
(P) $\dfrac{m}{ne^{2}\rho}$
(Q) $nev_d$
(R) $\dfrac{eE}{m}\tau$
(S) $\dfrac{E}{J}$
- A. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
- B. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
- C. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
- D. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q) ✓
Solution: A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q Drift velocity $v_d = \dfrac{eE}{m}\tau$ (A-R) Resistivity $\rho = \dfrac{E}{J}$, from $J = \sigma E$ (B-S) Relaxation time: $\rho = \dfrac{m}{ne^2\tau}$ gives $\tau = \dfrac{m}{ne^2\rho}$ (C-P) Current density $J = nev_d$ (D-Q)
Q19.
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
- A. 9.4 MeV
- B. 804 MeV
- C. 216 MeV ✓
- D. 0.9 MeV
Solution: $216\ \text{MeV}$ Binding energy before $= 240 \times 7.6\ \text{MeV} = 1824\ \text{MeV}$ Binding energy after $= 2 \times 120 \times 8.5\ \text{MeV} = 2040\ \text{MeV}$ ∴ Gain in binding energy $= 2040 - 1824 = 216\ \text{MeV}$
Q20.
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is $\sqrt{3}$.
- A. 30$^{\circ}$
- B. 45$^{\circ}$
- C. 90$^{\circ}$
- D. 60$^{\circ}$ ✓
Solution: $60^{\circ}$ Snell's law at the emerging face (point P in the figure): $\sqrt{3}\sin 30^{\circ} = 1 \times \sin e$ $\sin e = \sqrt{3} \times \tfrac{1}{2} = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$ ∴ $e = 60^{\circ}$
Q21.
If $E$ and $G$ respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then $\dfrac{E}{G}$ has the dimensions of
- A. $[\text{M}][\text{L}^{-1}][\text{T}^{-1}]$
- B. $[\text{M}][\text{L}^{0}][\text{T}^{0}]$
- C. $[\text{M}^{2}][\text{L}^{-2}][\text{T}^{-1}]$
- D. $[\text{M}^{2}][\text{L}^{-1}][\text{T}^{0}]$ ✓
Solution: $[\text{M}^{2}][\text{L}^{-1}][\text{T}^{0}]$ $[E] = [\text{ML}^2\text{T}^{-2}]$ and, from $F = \dfrac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}$, $[G] = [\text{M}^{-1}\text{L}^3\text{T}^{-2}]$ ∴ $\left[\dfrac{E}{G}\right] = \dfrac{[\text{ML}^2\text{T}^{-2}]}{[\text{M}^{-1}\text{L}^3\text{T}^{-2}]} = [\text{M}^2\text{L}^{-1}\text{T}^0]$
Q22.
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time $t = 0$. Let $S_n$ be the distance travelled by the block in the interval $t = n - 1$ to $t = n$. Then, the ratio $\dfrac{S_n}{S_{n+1}}$ is
- A. $\dfrac{2n - 1}{2n + 1}$ ✓
- B. $\dfrac{2n + 1}{2n - 1}$
- C. $\dfrac{2n}{2n - 1}$
- D. $\dfrac{2n - 1}{2n}$
Solution: $\dfrac{2n - 1}{2n + 1}$ On a smooth incline the acceleration is constant, $a = g\sin\theta$, and the block starts from rest. Distance in the $n^{\text{th}}$ second: $S_n = u + \dfrac{a}{2}(2n - 1) = \dfrac{a}{2}(2n - 1)$ Similarly $S_{n+1} = \dfrac{a}{2}\left[2(n + 1) - 1\right] = \dfrac{a}{2}(2n + 1)$ ∴ $\dfrac{S_n}{S_{n+1}} = \dfrac{2n - 1}{2n + 1}$
Q23.
Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct match from the given choices.
Column-I:
(A) Root mean square speed of gas molecules
(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas
(C) Average kinetic energy of a molecule
(D) Total internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas
Column-II:
(P) $\dfrac{1}{3}nm\bar{v}^{2}$
(Q) $\sqrt{\dfrac{3RT}{M}}$
(R) $\dfrac{5}{2}RT$
(S) $\dfrac{3}{2}k_BT$
- A. (A)-(Q), (B)-(R), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
- B. (A)-(Q), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(R) ✓
- C. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(P), (D)-(S)
- D. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
Solution: A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R rms speed $v_{\text{rms}} = \sqrt{\dfrac{3RT}{M}}$ (A-Q) Pressure of an ideal gas $P = \tfrac{1}{3}nm\overline{v^2}$ (B-P) Average kinetic energy of a molecule $= \tfrac{3}{2}k_BT$ (C-S) A diatomic molecule has 5 degrees of freedom, so for 1 mole $U = \tfrac{5}{2}RT$ (D-R)
Q24.
A radioactive nucleus $^{A}_{Z}X$ undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence
$$^{A}_{Z}X \rightarrow {}_{Z-1}B \rightarrow {}_{Z-3}C \rightarrow {}_{Z-2}D$$
where $Z$ is the atomic number of element $X$. The possible decay particles in the sequence are
- A. $\alpha$, $\beta^{+}$, $\beta^{-}$
- B. $\beta^{+}$, $\alpha$, $\beta^{-}$ ✓
- C. $\beta^{-}$, $\alpha$, $\beta^{+}$
- D. $\alpha$, $\beta^{-}$, $\beta^{+}$
Solution: $\beta^{+}$, $\alpha$, $\beta^{-}$ $Z \to Z - 1$: atomic number falls by 1, so $\beta^{+}$ decay. $Z - 1 \to Z - 3$: atomic number falls by 2, so $\alpha$ decay. $Z - 3 \to Z - 2$: atomic number rises by 1, so $\beta^{-}$ decay.
Q25.
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 $\Omega$. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?
- A. 0.5 $\Omega$
- B. 1 $\Omega$
- C. 4 $\Omega$ ✓
- D. 0.25 $\Omega$
Solution: $4\ \Omega$ Four equal resistances $R$ in parallel: $R_p = \dfrac{R}{4} = 0.25\ \Omega$, so $R = 1\ \Omega$ ∴ In series, $R_s = 4R = 4\ \Omega$
Q26.
A convex lens '$A$' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens '$B$' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance '$d$' between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on '$A$' leaves '$B$' as a parallel beam, then the distance '$d$' in cm will be
Solution: $d = 15\ \text{cm}$ Parallel light from the convex lens A converges towards its focus, 20 cm beyond A. The concave lens B sends light out parallel only if this point lies at its focus, 5 cm beyond B. ∴ $d = f_A - |f_B| = 20 - 5 = 15\ \text{cm}$
Q27.
A particle is released from height $S$ from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively
- A. $\dfrac{S}{4}$, $\dfrac{\sqrt{3gS}}{2}$
- B. $\dfrac{S}{2}$, $\dfrac{\sqrt{3gS}}{2}$
- C. $\dfrac{S}{4}$, $\sqrt{\dfrac{3gS}{2}}$ ✓
- D. $\dfrac{S}{4}$, $\dfrac{3gS}{2}$
Solution: $\dfrac{S}{4}$ and $\sqrt{\dfrac{3gS}{2}}$ Conservation of energy (potential energy zero at the ground): $mgS = K + U$, with $K = 3U$ $mgS = 4mgy$, so $y = \dfrac{S}{4}$ $\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2 = mg(S - y) = \tfrac{3}{4}mgS$ ∴ $v = \sqrt{\dfrac{3gS}{2}}$
Q28.
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?
- A. Towards the right as its potential energy will decrease. ✓
- B. Towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
- C. Towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
- D. Towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
Solution: Towards the right, as its potential energy will decrease Potential energy of a dipole in a field: $U = -\vec{p}\cdot\vec{E} = -pE\cos\theta$ The dipole moment is opposite to the field, $\theta = 180^{\circ}$, so $U = +pE$. The field gets weaker towards the right, so $U$ decreases in that direction. The net force is towards the right (net torque is zero), so the dipole moves right, the way its potential energy decreases.
Q29.
Two charged spherical conductors of radius $R_1$ and $R_2$ are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres ($\sigma_1/\sigma_2$) is
- A. $\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}$ ✓
- B. $\sqrt{\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}}$
- C. $\dfrac{R_1^{2}}{R_2^{2}}$
- D. $\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}$
Solution: $\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}$ Conductors joined by a wire are at the same potential: $\dfrac{kQ_1}{R_1} = \dfrac{kQ_2}{R_2}$, so $Q \propto R$ Surface charge density $\sigma = \dfrac{Q}{4\pi R^2} \propto \dfrac{1}{R}$ ∴ $\dfrac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2} = \dfrac{R_2}{R_1}$
Q30.
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency '$n$', the frequency of its potential energy is
- A. $2n$ ✓
- B. $3n$
- C. $4n$
- D. $n$
Solution: $2n$ Displacement in SHM: $x = A\sin\omega t$, with $\omega = 2\pi n$ Potential energy $U = \tfrac{1}{2}kx^2 = \tfrac{1}{2}kA^2\sin^2\omega t = \tfrac{1}{4}kA^2(1 - \cos 2\omega t)$ ∴ $U$ varies with angular frequency $2\omega$, so its frequency is $2n$.
Q31.
The velocity of a small ball of mass $M$ and density $d$, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is $\dfrac{d}{2}$, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be
- A. $Mg$
- B. $\dfrac{3}{2}Mg$
- C. $2Mg$
- D. $\dfrac{Mg}{2}$ ✓
Solution: $\dfrac{Mg}{2}$ At constant (terminal) velocity the net force is zero: $Mg = F_B + F_v$ Buoyant force $F_B = V\left(\dfrac{d}{2}\right)g = \dfrac{Mg}{2}$, since $M = Vd$ ∴ Viscous force $F_v = Mg - \dfrac{Mg}{2} = \dfrac{Mg}{2}$
Q32.
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '$\lambda$' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If '$m$' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength $\lambda_d$, then
- A. $\lambda_d = \left(\dfrac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda^{2}$
- B. $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$ ✓
- C. $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2h}{mc}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$
- D. $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2m}{hc}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$
Solution: $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$ With negligible work function, all the photon energy becomes kinetic energy: $\dfrac{hc}{\lambda} = \dfrac{p^2}{2m}$ de Broglie relation $p = \dfrac{h}{\lambda_d}$ gives $\dfrac{hc}{\lambda} = \dfrac{h^2}{2m\lambda_d^2}$ ∴ $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda_d^2$
Q33.
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in $x$-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field ($E$) and magnetic field ($B$) respectively?
- A. $-\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ -\hat{j} - \hat{k}$ ✓
- B. $\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ -\hat{j} - \hat{k}$
- C. $-\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ -\hat{j} + \hat{k}$
- D. $\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ \hat{j} + \hat{k}$
Solution: $\vec{E}$ along $-\hat{j} + \hat{k}$ and $\vec{B}$ along $-\hat{j} - \hat{k}$ The wave travels along $\vec{E} \times \vec{B}$: $(-\hat{j} + \hat{k}) \times (-\hat{j} - \hat{k}) = \hat{i} + \hat{i} = 2\hat{i}$, along $+x$. (B) $\vec{B}$ is opposite to $\vec{E}$, so $\vec{E} \times \vec{B} = 0$. (C) $\vec{B}$ is parallel to $\vec{E}$, so $\vec{E} \times \vec{B} = 0$. (D) $\vec{B}$ is parallel to $\vec{E}$, so $\vec{E} \times \vec{B} = 0$.
Q34.
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of $10^{5}$ m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
- A. $8\pi \times 10^{-20}$ N
- B. $4\pi \times 10^{-20}$ N
- C. $8 \times 10^{-20}$ N ✓
- D. $4 \times 10^{-20}$ N
Solution: $8 \times 10^{-20}\ \text{N}$ Field of a long straight wire $B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r} = \dfrac{2 \times 10^{-7} \times 5}{0.20}\ \text{T} = 5 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{T}$ The electron moves parallel to the wire, so $\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}$ and $F = evB$. $F = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{5} \times 5 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{N}$ ∴ $F = 8 \times 10^{-20}\ \text{N}$
Q35.
The electron concentration in an $n$-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a $p$-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
- A. Current in $p$-type > current in $n$-type
- B. Current in $n$-type > current in $p$-type. ✓
- C. No current will flow in $p$-type, current will only flow in $n$-type
- D. Current in $n$-type = current in $p$-type
Solution: Current in $n$-type > current in $p$-type Current $I = neAv_d = neA\mu E$, so for equal carrier concentration and field, $I \propto \mu$. Electrons have higher mobility than holes, $\mu_e > \mu_h$. ∴ $I_n > I_p$
Q36.
A particle moving in a circle of radius $R$ with a uniform speed takes a time $T$ to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle '$\theta$' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals $4R$. The angle of projection, $\theta$, is then given by :
- A. $\theta = \cos^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\pi^{2}R}{gT^{2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
- B. $\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\pi^{2}R}{gT^{2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
- C. $\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{2gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$ ✓
- D. $\theta = \cos^{-1}\left(\dfrac{gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
Solution: $\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{2gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R}\right)^{1/2}$ Speed in the circle $u = \dfrac{2\pi R}{T}$ Maximum height of a projectile $H = \dfrac{u^2\sin^2\theta}{2g} = 4R$, so $\sin^2\theta = \dfrac{8gR}{u^2}$ $\sin^2\theta = \dfrac{8gR\,T^2}{4\pi^2R^2} = \dfrac{2gT^2}{\pi^2R}$ ∴ $\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{2gT^2}{\pi^2R}\right)^{1/2}$
Q37.
Three resistors having resistances $r_1$, $r_2$ and $r_3$ are connected as shown in the given circuit — $r_1$ carries the whole current $i_1$ from $A$ and then splits into $r_2$ carrying $i_2$ and $r_3$ carrying $i_3$ in parallel, rejoining at $B$. The ratio $\dfrac{i_3}{i_1}$ of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is
- A. $\dfrac{r_2}{r_2 + r_3}$ ✓
- B. $\dfrac{r_1}{r_1 + r_2}$
- C. $\dfrac{r_2}{r_1 + r_3}$
- D. $\dfrac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}$
Solution: $\dfrac{r_2}{r_2 + r_3}$ $r_2$ and $r_3$ are in parallel, so they have the same potential difference: $i_2r_2 = i_3r_3$ Kirchhoff's junction rule: $i_1 = i_2 + i_3 = i_3\left(\dfrac{r_3}{r_2} + 1\right)$ ∴ $\dfrac{i_3}{i_1} = \dfrac{r_2}{r_2 + r_3}$
Q38.
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of
- A. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
- B. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image
- C. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image ✓
- D. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
Solution: 20 cm from the plane mirror, a virtual image First refraction, lens formula $\dfrac{1}{v} - \dfrac{1}{u} = \dfrac{1}{f}$: $\dfrac{1}{v} = \dfrac{1}{30} - \dfrac{1}{60}$, so $v = 60\ \text{cm}$ That image would lie 20 cm behind the mirror, so the mirror forms a real image 20 cm in front of it, i.e. 20 cm from the lens. Second refraction, light going back through the lens: $u = -20\ \text{cm}$, $\dfrac{1}{v} = \dfrac{1}{30} - \dfrac{1}{20}$, so $v = -60\ \text{cm}$ ∴ The final image is virtual, 60 cm from the lens on the mirror side, i.e. $60 - 40 = 20\ \text{cm}$ from the plane mirror.
Q39.
A uniform conducting wire of length $12a$ and resistance '$R$' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,
(i) an equilateral triangle of side '$a$'.
(ii) a square of side '$a$'.
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are
- A. $3Ia^{2}$ and $Ia^{2}$
- B. $3Ia^{2}$ and $4Ia^{2}$
- C. $4Ia^{2}$ and $3Ia^{2}$
- D. $\sqrt{3}Ia^{2}$ and $3Ia^{2}$ ✓
Solution: $\sqrt{3}Ia^{2}$ and $3Ia^{2}$ Magnetic moment of a coil $m = NIA$; it is the same wire, so the same current $I$ flows in both cases. Triangle: $N = \dfrac{12a}{3a} = 4$ and $A = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2$, so $m_1 = 4I \times \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2 = \sqrt{3}Ia^2$ Square: $N = \dfrac{12a}{4a} = 3$ and $A = a^2$, so $m_2 = 3Ia^2$
Q40.
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals $A$, $B$ and $C$. What would be the output at the terminal $y$?
- A. A train of narrow spikes at 0 V
- B. A waveform that goes high between $t_1$ and $t_3$ and again between $t_4$ and $t_6$
- C. A constant 5 V level throughout ✓
- D. A waveform that starts high, drops between $t_2$ and $t_4$, and rises again
Solution: Constant 5 V level throughout From the circuit, the output is $y = A\cdot B + \overline{B\cdot C}$. $y$ can be 0 only when $B = C = 1$ and $A = 0$. In the given input waveforms $B$ and $C$ are never 1 together, so $\overline{B\cdot C} = 1$ in every interval. ∴ $y = 1$ throughout, a constant 5 V output.
Q41.
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is ($g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$) nearly
- A. 4.2 kg m/s ✓
- B. 2.1 kg m/s
- C. 1.4 kg m/s
- D. 0 kg m/s
Solution: $4.2\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}$ Speed on reaching the ground $v = \sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 10}\ \text{m s}^{-1} = 10\sqrt{2}\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ It rebounds to the same height, so it leaves the ground upwards with the same speed. Impulse = change in momentum $= mv - (-mv) = 2mv = 2 \times 0.15 \times 10\sqrt{2}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}$ ∴ Impulse $\approx 4.2\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}$
Q42.
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?
- A. 0.4 A
- B. 2 A
- C. 4 A
- D. 0.2 A ✓
Solution: $0.2\ \text{A}$ Ideal transformer: input power = output power, so $V_pI_p = 44\ \text{W}$ ∴ $I_p = \dfrac{44}{220}\ \text{A} = 0.2\ \text{A}$
Q43.
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 $\mu$F capacitor and 40 $\Omega$ resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be
- A. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
- B. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s ✓
- C. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
- D. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
Solution: $46\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$ and $54\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$ Resonant angular frequency $\omega_0 = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{LC}} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{5 \times 80 \times 10^{-6}}}\ \text{rad s}^{-1} = 50\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$ Half-power angular frequencies $\omega = \omega_0 \pm \dfrac{R}{2L} = 50 \pm \dfrac{40}{2 \times 5}$ ∴ $\omega = 46\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$ and $54\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$
Q44.
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass '$m$' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of '$m$' such that the rod is in equilibrium. ($g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$)
- A. $\dfrac{1}{3}$ kg
- B. $\dfrac{1}{6}$ kg
- C. $\dfrac{1}{12}$ kg ✓
- D. $\dfrac{1}{2}$ kg
Solution: $\tfrac{1}{12}\ \text{kg}$ The weight of a uniform rod acts at its centre, the 100 cm mark. Moments about the wedge at the 40 cm mark (distances in cm): $2g \times 20 = 0.5g \times 60 + mg \times 120$ ∴ $120m = 40 - 30 = 10$, so $m = \dfrac{1}{12}\ \text{kg}$
Q45.
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s$^{2}$. At $t = 4$ s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at $t = 6$ s?
(Take $g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$)
- A. 20 m/s, 0
- B. $20\sqrt{2}$ m/s, 0
- C. $20\sqrt{2}$ m/s, 10 m/s$^{2}$ ✓
- D. 20 m/s, 5 m/s$^{2}$
Solution: $20\sqrt{2}\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ and $10\ \text{m s}^{-2}$ At $t = 4\ \text{s}$ the car's speed is $v = at = 5 \times 4 = 20\ \text{m s}^{-1}$, which the ball keeps as its horizontal velocity. After 2 s of free fall, vertical velocity $v_y = gt = 10 \times 2 = 20\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ Speed $= \sqrt{20^2 + 20^2}\ \text{m s}^{-1} = 20\sqrt{2}\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ Once released, only gravity acts on the ball, so its acceleration is $g = 10\ \text{m s}^{-2}$.
Q46.
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
- A. 1320 V
- B. 1520 V
- C. 1980 V ✓
- D. 660 V
Solution: $1980\ \text{V}$ Potential of a charged sphere $V = \dfrac{kq}{r}$ Volume is conserved, $27 \times \tfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3 = \tfrac{4}{3}\pi R^3$, so $R = 3r$; charge is conserved, $Q = 27q$ $V' = \dfrac{k(27q)}{3r} = 9 \times \dfrac{kq}{r} = 9 \times 220\ \text{V}$ ∴ $V' = 1980\ \text{V}$
Q47.
Two conducting circular loops of radii $R_1$ and $R_2$ are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If $R_1 \gg R_2$, the mutual inductance $M$ between them will be directly proportional to
- A. $\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}$
- B. $\dfrac{R_1^{2}}{R_2}$
- C. $\dfrac{R_2^{2}}{R_1}$ ✓
- D. $\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}$
Solution: $\dfrac{R_2^{2}}{R_1}$ Current $i$ in the large loop gives $B = \dfrac{\mu_0 i}{2R_1}$ at its centre, nearly uniform over the small loop since $R_1 \gg R_2$. Flux through the small loop $\phi = B\pi R_2^2 = \dfrac{\mu_0\pi i R_2^2}{2R_1}$ Mutual inductance $M = \dfrac{\phi}{i} = \dfrac{\mu_0\pi R_2^2}{2R_1}$ ∴ $M \propto \dfrac{R_2^2}{R_1}$
Q48.
A particle of mass '$m$' is projected with a velocity $v = kV_e$ ($k < 1$) from the surface of the earth.
($V_e$ = escape velocity)
The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is
- A. $R\left(\dfrac{k}{1 + k}\right)^{2}$
- B. $\dfrac{R^{2}k}{1 + k}$
- C. $\dfrac{Rk^{2}}{1 - k^{2}}$ ✓
- D. $R\left(\dfrac{k}{1 - k}\right)^{2}$
Solution: $\dfrac{Rk^{2}}{1 - k^{2}}$ Conservation of energy: $\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2 - \dfrac{GMm}{R} = -\dfrac{GMm}{R + h}$ With $v = kV_e$ and $V_e^2 = \dfrac{2GM}{R}$: $\dfrac{k^2GM}{R} = \dfrac{GM}{R} - \dfrac{GM}{R + h} = \dfrac{GMh}{R(R + h)}$ $k^2(R + h) = h$, so $h(1 - k^2) = k^2R$ ∴ $h = \dfrac{Rk^2}{1 - k^2}$
Q49.
In the product
$$\vec{F} = q\left(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\right) = q\vec{v} \times \left(B\hat{i} + B\hat{j} + B_0\hat{k}\right)$$
For $q = 1$ and $\vec{v} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}$ and $\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} - 20\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}$
What will be the complete expression for $\vec{B}$ ?
- A. $-6\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$ ✓
- B. $8\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}$
- C. $6\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$
- D. $-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}$
Solution: $\vec{B} = -6\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$ With $q = 1$: $\vec{v} \times \vec{B} = (4B_0 - 6B)\hat{i} + (6B - 2B_0)\hat{j} + (2B - 4B)\hat{k}$ Comparing $\hat{k}$ components with $\vec{F}$: $-2B = 12$, so $B = -6$ Comparing $\hat{i}$ components: $4B_0 - 6B = 4$, so $4B_0 = 4 - 36$ and $B_0 = -8$ The $\hat{j}$ component checks: $6(-6) - 2(-8) = -20$, as given. ∴ $\vec{B} = -6\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$
Q50.
From a circular ring of mass '$M$' and radius '$R$' an arc corresponding to a 90$^{\circ}$ sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is '$K$' times '$MR^{2}$'. Then the value of '$K$' is
- A. $\dfrac{7}{8}$
- B. $\dfrac{1}{4}$
- C. $\dfrac{1}{8}$
- D. $\dfrac{3}{4}$ ✓
Solution: $K = \tfrac{3}{4}$ Removing a $90^{\circ}$ arc removes a quarter of the ring, leaving mass $\dfrac{3M}{4}$. Every element of the remaining ring is at distance $R$ from the axis, so $I = \dfrac{3M}{4}R^2$ ∴ $K = \dfrac{3}{4}$
Q51.
Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :
- A. Three horizontal lines drawn together and labelled (200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
- B. Three straight lines through the origin, the 200 K line the steepest
- C. Three rectangular hyperbolas, the 600 K curve furthest from the origin and the 200 K curve nearest ✓
- D. Three rectangular hyperbolas, the 200 K curve furthest from the origin and the 600 K curve nearest
Solution: Three rectangular hyperbolas, the 600 K curve furthest from the origin and the 200 K curve nearest Boyle's law: at constant temperature $PV = k$, so each $P$–$V$ isotherm is a rectangular hyperbola. $k = nRT$, so $PV$ is larger at higher temperature and the 600 K curve lies furthest from the origin. (A) Horizontal lines would mean pressure does not change with volume. (B) Straight lines through the origin would mean $P \propto V$. (D) The order is reversed: $PV = nRT$ is smallest at 200 K, so that curve lies nearest the origin.
Q52.
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF $\ll$ HCl $\ll$ HBr $\ll$ HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B. Statement I is correct but statement II is false
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
- D. Both statement I and Statement II are true ✓
Solution: Both statements are true Statement I is true: acid strength of the hydrogen halides is HF < HCl < HBr < HI. Statement II is true: down the group the H–X bond gets longer and its bond dissociation enthalpy falls, so H⁺ is released more easily.
Q53.
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?
- A. Alpha ($\alpha$)
- B. Gamma ($\gamma$)
- C. Neutron ($n$)
- D. Beta ($\beta^{-}$) ✓
Solution: Beta ($\beta^{-}$) particles Tritium (³H) is the only radioactive isotope of hydrogen and emits low-energy $\beta^{-}$ particles ($t_{1/2} = 12.33$ years).
Q54.
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
- A. Upto 2200 K ✓
- B. Upto 1900 K
- C. Upto 5000 K
- D. Upto 1200 K
Solution: Up to 2200 K The hottest part of the blast furnace, near the bottom where coke burns in the hot air blast, reaches about 2170 K (NCERT figure), i.e. up to about 2200 K.
Q55.
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
- A. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points ✓
- B. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
- C. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy
- D. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
Solution: Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points (the incorrect statement) Only weak dispersion forces act between noble gas atoms, so their melting and boiling points are very low, not high. (B) True: the only interatomic forces are weak dispersion forces. (C) True: their stable $ns^2np^6$ configuration gives large positive electron gain enthalpies. (D) True: noble gases are only sparingly soluble in water.
Q56.
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
- A. CH$_3$CH$_2$–NH–CH$_3$ (a secondary amine)
- B. CH$_3$CH$_2$–NH$_2$ (a primary amine) ✓
- C. CH$_3$CH$_2$–N(CH$_3$)–CH$_2$CH$_3$ (a tertiary amine)
- D. CH$_3$CH$_2$–NO$_2$ (a nitroalkane)
Solution: CH₃CH₂NH₂ (a primary amine) Hinsberg's reagent (benzenesulphonyl chloride, C₆H₅SO₂Cl) and a primary amine give N-ethylbenzenesulphonamide, whose N–H is acidic (strongly electron-withdrawing sulphonyl group), so it dissolves in alkali. (A) A secondary amine gives N-ethyl-N-methylbenzenesulphonamide, which has no H on nitrogen and is insoluble in alkali. (C) A tertiary amine does not react with Hinsberg's reagent. (D) A nitroalkane has no N–H, so it cannot form a sulphonamide.
Q57.
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
- A. Strontium chloride
- B. Magnesium chloride
- C. Beryllium chloride ✓
- D. Calcium chloride
Solution: Beryllium chloride Be²⁺ is very small with high polarising power, so beryllium chloride is essentially covalent and soluble in organic solvents; the other alkaline earth metal chlorides are ionic.
Q58.
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?
Acetone treated with (i) C$_2$H$_5$MgBr, dry ether; (ii) H$_2$O, H$^{+}$ gives the product.
- A. pentan-2-ol
- B. pentan-3-ol
- C. 2-methylbutan-2-ol ✓
- D. 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Solution: 2-methylbutan-2-ol The ethyl group of the Grignard reagent adds to the carbonyl carbon of acetone, giving (CH₃)₂C(OMgBr)C₂H₅. Hydrolysis gives the tertiary alcohol (CH₃)₂C(OH)CH₂CH₃. Its longest chain has four carbons, with OH and CH₃ both on C-2: 2-methylbutan-2-ol.
Q59.
BF$_3$ is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :
- A. $sp^{3}$ and 6
- B. $sp^{2}$ and 6 ✓
- C. $sp^{2}$ and 8
- D. $sp^{3}$ and 4
Solution: $sp^{2}$ and 6 Boron forms three B–F bond pairs and has no lone pair, so it has only 6 electrons around it (electron deficient). Three electron pairs give $sp^2$ hybridisation and a trigonal planar shape.
Q60.
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :
- A. Linear in both
- B. Dimer and Linear, respectively
- C. Chain in both
- D. Chain and dimer, respectively ✓
Solution: Chain and dimer, respectively In the solid state BeCl₂ has a chain structure, with chlorine bridges between the Be atoms. In the vapour phase it forms the chloro-bridged dimer Be₂Cl₄, which dissociates into the linear monomer only at high temperature (about 1200 K).
Q61.
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
- A. Vitamin B$_6$
- B. Vitamin B$_1$
- C. Vitamin B$_2$
- D. Vitamin B$_{12}$ ✓
Solution: Vitamin B₁₂ Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency causes pernicious anaemia, in which RBCs are deficient in haemoglobin (B₁ deficiency causes beri-beri, B₂ cheilosis, B₆ convulsions).
Q62.
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
Solution: 3 Body-centred unit cells occur in only three crystal systems: cubic, tetragonal and orthorhombic.
Q63.
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH$_3$COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$ respectively. The molar conductance of CH$_3$COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.
- A. 390.71 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$ ✓
- B. 698.28 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
- C. 540.48 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
- D. 201.28 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
Solution: $390.71\ \text{S cm}^{2}\ \text{mol}^{-1}$ Kohlrausch's law: $\Lambda^{\circ}_m$(CH₃COOH) = $\Lambda^{\circ}_m$(CH₃COONa) + $\Lambda^{\circ}_m$(HCl) − $\Lambda^{\circ}_m$(NaCl) $\Lambda^{\circ}_m = 91.0 + 426.16 - 126.45\ \text{S cm}^2\ \text{mol}^{-1}$ ∴ $\Lambda^{\circ}_m$(CH₃COOH) $= 390.71\ \text{S cm}^2\ \text{mol}^{-1}$
Q64.
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?
- A. Nylon-66
- B. Novolac
- C. Dacron
- D. Teflon ✓
Solution: Teflon Teflon is made by addition polymerisation of tetrafluoroethene: n CF₂=CF₂ → –(CF₂–CF₂)ₙ– (A) Nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid. (B) Novolac is a condensation polymer of phenol and formaldehyde. (C) Dacron is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.
Q65.
The p$K_b$ of dimethylamine and p$K_a$ of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at $T$ (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :
- A. 5.50
- B. 7.75 ✓
- C. 6.25
- D. 8.50
Solution: 7.75 Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base: $\text{pH} = 7 + \tfrac{1}{2}(\text{p}K_a - \text{p}K_b)$ $\text{pH} = 7 + \tfrac{1}{2}(4.77 - 3.27) = 7 + 0.75$ ∴ pH = 7.75
Q66.
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light $c = 3.0 \times 10^{8}$ ms$^{-1}$]
- A. 219.2 m
- B. 2192 m
- C. 21.92 cm
- D. 219.3 m ✓
Solution: $219.3\ \text{m}$ Wavelength $\lambda = \dfrac{c}{\nu} = \dfrac{3.0 \times 10^{8}\ \text{m s}^{-1}}{1368 \times 10^{3}\ \text{s}^{-1}}$ ∴ $\lambda = 219.3\ \text{m}$
Q67.
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
- A. 6, 12
- B. 2, 1
- C. 12, 6 ✓
- D. 8, 4
Solution: 12 tetrahedral and 6 octahedral voids $N$ close-packed spheres form $2N$ tetrahedral and $N$ octahedral voids. The hexagonal (hcp) unit cell contains $12 \times \tfrac{1}{6} + 2 \times \tfrac{1}{2} + 3 = 6$ atoms. ∴ Tetrahedral voids $= 12$ and octahedral voids $= 6$
Q68.
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C$_6$H$_{12}$O$_6$) in 250 ml of water ($P_1$), 10 g of urea (CH$_4$N$_2$O) in 250 ml of water ($P_2$) and 10 g of sucrose (C$_{12}$H$_{22}$O$_{11}$) in 250 ml of water ($P_3$). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
- A. $P_1 > P_2 > P_3$
- B. $P_2 > P_3 > P_1$
- C. $P_3 > P_1 > P_2$
- D. $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$ ✓
Solution: $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$ Osmotic pressure $\pi = CRT$ for these non-electrolytes, so $\pi$ is proportional to the moles of solute in the same volume. Equal masses (10 g), so moles $\propto \dfrac{1}{M}$; with $M$ = 60 (urea), 180 (glucose) and 342 g mol⁻¹ (sucrose), moles of urea > glucose > sucrose ∴ $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$
Q69.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) PCl$_5$
(b) SF$_6$
(c) BrF$_5$
(d) BF$_3$
List-II:
(i) Square pyramidal
(ii) Trigonal planar
(iii) Octahedral
(iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
Solution: a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii PCl₅: 5 bond pairs, $sp^3d$, trigonal bipyramidal (a-iv) SF₆: 6 bond pairs, $sp^3d^2$, octahedral (b-iii) BrF₅: 5 bond pairs and 1 lone pair, $sp^3d^2$, square pyramidal (c-i) BF₃: 3 bond pairs, $sp^2$, trigonal planar (d-ii)
Q70.
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
- A. Unidentate ligand
- B. Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
- C. Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
- D. Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms ✓
Solution: Hexadentate ligand with four O and two N donor atoms EDTA⁴⁻ binds a metal ion through its two nitrogen atoms and the oxygen atoms of its four carboxylate groups, so it is a hexadentate ligand.
Q71.
The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is :
- A. Glucose solution
- B. Starch solution ✓
- C. Urea solution
- D. NaCl solution
Solution: Starch solution The Tyndall effect is shown only by colloids; starch forms a colloidal solution, while glucose, urea and NaCl form true solutions.
Q72.
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?
- A. Hund's Rule
- B. Hofmann Rule
- C. Huckel's Rule
- D. Saytzeff's Rule ✓
Solution: Saytzeff's rule Saytzeff's rule: in dehydrohalogenation the major product is the alkene with more alkyl groups on the doubly bonded carbons, so pent-2-ene (81%) is preferred over pent-1-ene (19%).
Q73.
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
- A. 180$^{\circ}$
- B. 60$^{\circ}$
- C. 0$^{\circ}$ ✓
- D. 120$^{\circ}$
Solution: $0^{\circ}$ The eclipsed conformation of ethane is the least stable (maximum torsional strain), and its dihedral angle is $0^{\circ}$; in the staggered form it is $60^{\circ}$.
Q74.
The major product of the following chemical reaction is :
3-Methylbut-1-ene, (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH=CH$_2$, treated with HBr in the presence of (C$_6$H$_5$CO)$_2$O$_2$
- A. (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–O–COC$_6$H$_5$
- B. (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH(Br)–CH$_3$
- C. (CH$_3$)$_2$CBr–CH$_2$–CH$_3$
- D. (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–Br ✓
Solution: (CH₃)₂CH–CH₂–CH₂–Br With benzoyl peroxide, HBr adds against Markovnikov's rule (peroxide or Kharash effect) by a free radical chain mechanism. Br• adds to the terminal carbon, giving the more stable secondary radical (CH₃)₂CH–CH•–CH₂Br, which takes H from HBr. ∴ The product is (CH₃)₂CH–CH₂–CH₂–Br, 1-bromo-3-methylbutane. Without peroxide, ionic addition would give (B) and, after a hydride shift, (C).
Q75.
The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
- A. Structure (1)
- B. Structure (2)
- C. Structure (3)
- D. Structure (4) ✓
Solution: Structure (4) Dec-4-ene: a ten-carbon chain with the C=C between C-4 and C-5, numbered to give the double bond the lowest locant. 2,6-Dimethyl: methyl groups on C-2 and C-6 of that chain. Only structure (4) has the ten-carbon chain, the C=C at C-4 and methyl groups at C-2 and C-6.
Q76.
Zr ($Z$ = 40) and Hf ($Z$ = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
- A. Diagonal relationship
- B. Lanthanoid contraction ✓
- C. Having similar chemical properties
- D. Belonging to same group
Solution: Lanthanoid contraction Lanthanoid contraction makes the radii of the third transition series almost equal to those of the second, so Zr (160 pm) and Hf (159 pm) are nearly the same size.
Q77.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.
Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false ✓
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution: Both statements are false Statement I is false: aspirin and paracetamol are non-narcotic analgesics. Statement II is false: morphine and heroin are narcotic analgesics.
Q78.
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?
- A. Chromatography
- B. Distillation ✓
- C. Zone refining
- D. Electrolysis
Solution: Distillation Mercury, the metal that is liquid at room temperature, has a low boiling point, so it is purified by distillation (as is zinc).
Q79.
The compound which shows metamerism is :
- A. C$_3$H$_8$O
- B. C$_3$H$_6$O
- C. C$_4$H$_{10}$O ✓
- D. C$_5$H$_{12}$
Solution: C₄H₁₀O Metamerism arises from different alkyl groups on either side of the same functional group; C₄H₁₀O gives the metamers CH₃CH₂–O–CH₂CH₃ and CH₃–O–CH₂CH₂CH₃. (A) C₃H₈O has only one ether, CH₃–O–C₂H₅, so it has no metamers. (B) C₃H₆O has only one ketone, CH₃COCH₃, and no pair of metamers. (D) C₅H₁₂ is an alkane with no functional group; it shows chain isomerism, not metamerism.
Q80.
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
- A. Cr$_2$O$_3$ + 2Al $\xrightarrow{\Delta}$ Al$_2$O$_3$ + 2Cr ✓
- B. Fe + 2HCl $\rightarrow$ FeCl$_2$ + H$_2\uparrow$
- C. 2Pb(NO$_3$)$_2$ $\rightarrow$ 2PbO + 4NO$_2$ + O$_2\uparrow$
- D. 2KClO$_3$ $\xrightarrow{\Delta}$ 2KCl + 3O$_2$
Solution: Cr₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Cr Aluminium displaces chromium from Cr₂O₃, so one metal is displaced by another: a metal displacement reaction. (B) Iron displaces hydrogen, a non-metal, from HCl. (C) Lead nitrate breaks down on heating: a decomposition reaction. (D) Potassium chlorate breaks down on heating: a decomposition reaction.
Q81.
The incorrect statement among the following is :
- A. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state ✓
- B. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity
- C. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
- D. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction
Solution: Most of the trivalent lanthanoid ions are colourless in the solid state (the incorrect statement) Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured, in the solid state and in solution, because of their f electrons (La³⁺ and Lu³⁺, with f⁰ and f¹⁴, are colourless). (B) True: lanthanoids have typical metallic structures and are good conductors of heat and electricity. (C) True: actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided. (D) True: actinoid contraction is greater from element to element, because 5f electrons shield poorly.
Q82.
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between C$_P$ and C$_V$ for one mole of ideal gas?
- A. C$_P$ – C$_V$ = R ✓
- B. C$_P$ = RC$_V$
- C. C$_V$ = RC$_P$
- D. C$_P$ + C$_V$ = R
Solution: $C_P - C_V = R$ At constant volume $q_V = C_V\Delta T = \Delta U$; at constant pressure $q_P = C_P\Delta T = \Delta H$ For one mole of an ideal gas $\Delta H = \Delta U + \Delta(PV) = \Delta U + R\Delta T$ $C_P\Delta T = C_V\Delta T + R\Delta T$ ∴ $C_P - C_V = R$
Q83.
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond is :
- A. CH$_3$–F > CH$_3$–Cl > CH$_3$–Br > CH$_3$–I ✓
- B. CH$_3$–F < CH$_3$–Cl > CH$_3$–Br > CH$_3$–I
- C. CH$_3$–Cl > CH$_3$–F > CH$_3$–Br > CH$_3$–I
- D. CH$_3$–F < CH$_3$–Cl < CH$_3$–Br < CH$_3$–I
Solution: CH₃–F > CH₃–Cl > CH₃–Br > CH₃–I Halogen size increases from F to I, so the C–X bond gets longer and weaker. Bond enthalpies (kJ mol⁻¹): CH₃–F 452, CH₃–Cl 351, CH₃–Br 293, CH₃–I 234
Q84.
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
- A. CH$_2$
- B. CH$_3$ ✓
- C. CH$_4$
- D. CH
Solution: CH₃ Hydrogen $= 100 - 78 = 22\%$ Moles in 100 g: C $= \dfrac{78}{12} = 6.5$ and H $= \dfrac{22}{1} = 22$ Simplest ratio C : H $= 1 : \dfrac{22}{6.5} = 1 : 3.38 \approx 1 : 3$ ∴ Empirical formula = CH₃
Q85.
For a reaction A $\rightarrow$ B, enthalpy of reaction is $-4.2$ kJ mol$^{-1}$ and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol$^{-1}$. The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.
- A. Profile (1) ✓
- B. Profile (2)
- C. Profile (3)
- D. Profile (4)
Solution: Profile (1) $\Delta H = (E_a)_f - (E_a)_b$, so $-4.2 = 9.6 - (E_a)_b$ ∴ $(E_a)_b = 9.6 + 4.2 = 13.8\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ The reaction is exothermic, so B lies 4.2 kJ mol⁻¹ below A, and the peak is 9.6 kJ mol⁻¹ above A and 13.8 kJ mol⁻¹ above B. Profile (1) is the one that matches.
Q86.
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
$\Lambda^{\circ}_{\text{H}^{+}} = 350$ S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
$\Lambda^{\circ}_{\text{CH}_3\text{COO}^{-}} = 50$ S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
- A. $2.50 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$
- B. $1.75 \times 10^{-5}$ mol L$^{-1}$ ✓
- C. $2.50 \times 10^{-5}$ mol L$^{-1}$
- D. $1.75 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$
Solution: $1.75 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{mol L}^{-1}$ Kohlrausch's law: $\Lambda^{\circ}_m$(CH₃COOH) $= 350 + 50 = 400\ \text{S cm}^2\ \text{mol}^{-1}$ Degree of dissociation $\alpha = \dfrac{\Lambda_m}{\Lambda^{\circ}_m} = \dfrac{20}{400} = 0.05$ $K_a = \dfrac{C\alpha^2}{1 - \alpha} \approx C\alpha^2 = 0.007 \times (0.05)^2$ ∴ $K_a = 1.75 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{mol L}^{-1}$
Q87.
The product formed in the following chemical reaction is:
A cyclohexanone ring bearing a CH$_2$COOCH$_3$ group on one neighbouring carbon and a CH$_3$ on the other is treated with NaBH$_4$ in C$_2$H$_5$OH.
- A. The ring ketone retained, with the ester side chain reduced to CH$_2$CH$_2$OH
- B. The ring reduced to an alcohol and the ester side chain reduced to CH$_2$CH(OH)CH$_3$
- C. The ring reduced to an alcohol (OH), with the CH$_2$COOCH$_3$ ester side chain untouched ✓
- D. The ring reduced to an alcohol and the side chain converted to CH$_2$CH(OH)OCH$_3$
Solution: Ring C=O reduced to CH–OH, with the CH₂COOCH₃ ester side chain untouched NaBH₄ reduces aldehydes and ketones to alcohols but does not reduce esters. ∴ The ring C=O becomes a secondary alcohol and the CH₂COOCH₃ side chain is unchanged. A, B and D all alter the ester side chain, which NaBH₄ leaves untouched.
Q88.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) 2SO$_2$(g) + O$_2$(g) $\rightarrow$ 2SO$_3$(g)
(b) HOCl(g) $\xrightarrow{h\nu}$ $\dot{\text{O}}$H + $\dot{\text{C}}$l
(c) CaCO$_3$ + H$_2$SO$_4$ $\rightarrow$ CaSO$_4$ + H$_2$O + CO$_2$
(d) NO$_2$(g) $\xrightarrow{h\nu}$ NO(g) + O(g)
List-II:
(i) Acid rain
(ii) Smog
(iii) Ozone depletion
(iv) Tropospheric pollution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Solution: a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii SO₂ is oxidised to SO₃ in the air: gaseous tropospheric pollution (a-iv). Sunlight splits HOCl into OH and Cl radicals, and Cl radicals destroy ozone (b-iii). H₂SO₄ in acid rain attacks marble, CaCO₃ (c-i). Photolysis of NO₂ gives atomic oxygen, which starts photochemical smog (d-ii).
Q89.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Benzene with CO, HCl over anhyd. AlCl$_3$/CuCl
(b) R—CO—CH$_3$ + NaOX
(c) R—CH$_2$—OH + R$'$COOH with conc. H$_2$SO$_4$
(d) R—CH$_2$COOH with (i) X$_2$/Red P, (ii) H$_2$O
List-II:
(i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction
(ii) Gattermann-Koch reaction
(iii) Haloform reaction
(iv) Esterification
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
- B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) ✓
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Solution: a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i Benzene with CO and HCl over anhydrous AlCl₃/CuCl gives benzaldehyde: Gattermann–Koch reaction (a-ii). A methyl ketone with NaOX gives the carboxylate and CHX₃: haloform reaction (b-iii). An alcohol with a carboxylic acid and conc. H₂SO₄ gives an ester: esterification (c-iv). An acid with an $\alpha$-hydrogen, with X₂/red P then H₂O, gives the $\alpha$-halo acid: Hell–Volhard–Zelinsky reaction (d-i).
Q90.
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?
- A. H$_2$O < H$_2$S < H$_2$Se < H$_2$Te : Increasing p$K_a$ values ✓
- B. NH$_3$ < PH$_3$ < AsH$_3$ < SbH$_3$ : Increasing acidic character
- C. CO$_2$ < SiO$_2$ < SnO$_2$ < PbO$_2$ : Increasing oxidizing power
- D. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
Solution: H₂O < H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te : increasing p$K_a$ values (the incorrect statement) Down group 16 the H–E bond gets weaker, so acidity increases from H₂O to H₂Te and p$K_a$ decreases: H₂O > H₂S > H₂Se > H₂Te. (B) Correct: down group 15 the E–H bond weakens, so acidic character increases from NH₃ to SbH₃. (C) Correct: the +4 state becomes less stable down group 14 (inert pair effect), so oxidising power increases up to PbO₂. (D) Correct: H–X bond enthalpy falls from HF to HI, so acid strength increases.
Q91.
The reagent '$R$' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is:
2,4,6-Tribromoaniline is treated with NaNO$_2$, HCl at 0-5$^{\circ}$C to give the diazonium salt, which with reagent $R$ gives 1,3,5-tribromobenzene.
- A. CH$_3$CH$_2$OH ✓
- B. HI
- C. CuCN/KCN
- D. H$_2$O
Solution: CH₃CH₂OH (ethanol) NaNO₂/HCl at 0–5 °C converts the –NH₂ group into the diazonium group, –N₂⁺Cl⁻. Ethanol, a mild reducing agent, replaces –N₂⁺ by H and is itself oxidised to ethanal, giving 1,3,5-tribromobenzene. (B) Iodide replaces –N₂⁺ by I, giving an iodo compound. (C) CuCN/KCN gives the nitrile (–CN). (D) Warming with water gives the phenol (–OH).
Q92.
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:
- A. $\Delta U \neq 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} \neq 0$
- B. $\Delta U = 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} \neq 0$ ✓
- C. $\Delta U \neq 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} = 0$
- D. $\Delta U = 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} = 0$
Solution: $\Delta U = 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} \neq 0$ The internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature, so in an isothermal process $\Delta U = 0$. An irreversible process is spontaneous, so $\Delta S_{\text{total}} > 0$, i.e. $\Delta S_{\text{total}} \neq 0$.
Q93.
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45$^{\circ}$C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
[At 45$^{\circ}$C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
- A. 168 mm of Hg
- B. 336 mm of Hg ✓
- C. 350 mm of Hg
- D. 160 mm of Hg
Solution: 336 mm of Hg Mole fractions: benzene $= \dfrac{3}{5}$, octane $= \dfrac{2}{5}$ Raoult's law: $p = p^{\circ}_1x_1 + p^{\circ}_2x_2 = 280 \times \dfrac{3}{5} + 420 \times \dfrac{2}{5}$ (in mm Hg) ∴ $p = 168 + 168 = 336$ mm Hg
Q94.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) [Fe(CN)$_6$]$^{3-}$
(b) [Fe(H$_2$O)$_6$]$^{3+}$
(c) [Fe(CN)$_6$]$^{4-}$
(d) [Fe(H$_2$O)$_6$]$^{2+}$
List-II:
(i) 5.92 BM
(ii) 0 BM
(iii) 4.90 BM
(iv) 1.73 BM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Solution: a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii Spin-only moment $\mu = \sqrt{n(n + 2)}$ BM ($n$ = unpaired electrons); CN⁻ is a strong field ligand, H₂O a weak field ligand. [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻: Fe³⁺ ($d^5$), low spin, $n = 1$, $\mu = 1.73$ BM (a-iv) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺: Fe³⁺ ($d^5$), high spin, $n = 5$, $\mu = 5.92$ BM (b-i) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻: Fe²⁺ ($d^6$), low spin, $n = 0$, $\mu = 0$ (c-ii) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺: Fe²⁺ ($d^6$), high spin, $n = 4$, $\mu = 4.90$ BM (d-iii)
Q95.
The slope of Arrhenius plot $\left(\ln k \text{ v/s } \dfrac{1}{T}\right)$ of first order reaction is $-5 \times 10^{3}$ K. The value of $E_a$ of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.
[Given R = 8.314 JK$^{-1}$mol$^{-1}$]
- A. 83.0 kJ mol$^{-1}$
- B. 166 kJ mol$^{-1}$
- C. $-83$ kJ mol$^{-1}$
- D. 41.5 kJ mol$^{-1}$ ✓
Solution: $41.5\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ Arrhenius equation: $\ln k = \ln A - \dfrac{E_a}{R}\cdot\dfrac{1}{T}$, so the slope $= -\dfrac{E_a}{R}$ $E_a = 5 \times 10^{3}\ \text{K} \times 8.314\ \text{J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1} = 41\,570\ \text{J mol}^{-1}$ ∴ $E_a = 41.57\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$, i.e. about 41.5 kJ mol⁻¹
Q96.
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
- A. Na$^{+}$, Mg$^{2+}$
- B. Mn$^{2+}$, Fe$^{3+}$
- C. Fe$^{2+}$, Mn$^{2+}$ ✓
- D. O$^{2-}$, F$^{-}$
Solution: Fe²⁺ and Mn²⁺ (not isoelectronic) Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons; Fe²⁺ has $26 - 2 = 24$ but Mn²⁺ has $25 - 2 = 23$. (A) Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ both have 10 electrons. (B) Mn²⁺ and Fe³⁺ both have 23 electrons. (D) O²⁻ and F⁻ both have 10 electrons.
Q97.
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O$_2$ and 2 g H$_2$ confined in a total volume of one litre at 0$^{\circ}$C is :
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol$^{-1}$K$^{-1}$, T = 273 K]
- A. 2.602
- B. 25.18 ✓
- C. 26.02
- D. 2.518
Solution: 25.18 atm Moles: O₂ $= \dfrac{4}{32} = 0.125$, H₂ $= \dfrac{2}{2} = 1$, total $= 1.125$ mol Total pressure $P = \dfrac{nRT}{V} = \dfrac{1.125 \times 0.082 \times 273}{1}\ \text{atm}$ ∴ $P = 25.18\ \text{atm}$
Q98.
$$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COO}^{-}\text{Na}^{+} \xrightarrow[\text{Heat}]{\text{NaOH},\ +?} \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_3 + \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$$
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
- A. Red Phosphorus
- B. CaO ✓
- C. DIBAL-H
- D. B$_2$H$_6$
Solution: CaO Heating a sodium carboxylate with soda lime (NaOH and CaO) removes CO₂ as Na₂CO₃ and gives the alkane with one carbon fewer, here ethane.
Q99.
The intermediate compound '$X$' in the following chemical reaction is:
Toluene treated with CrO$_2$Cl$_2$ in CS$_2$ gives $X$, which on treatment with H$_3$O$^{+}$ gives benzaldehyde.
- A. C$_6$H$_5$–CH(OCOCH$_3$)$_2$
- B. C$_6$H$_5$–CHCl$_2$
- C. C$_6$H$_5$–CHCl(H)
- D. C$_6$H$_5$–CH(OCrOHCl$_2$)$_2$ ✓
Solution: C₆H₅–CH(OCrOHCl₂)₂ Etard reaction: chromyl chloride in CS₂ oxidises the methyl group of toluene to a chromium complex, C₆H₅CH(OCrOHCl₂)₂. Hydrolysis of this Etard complex with H₃O⁺ gives benzaldehyde. (A) C₆H₅CH(OCOCH₃)₂ is the intermediate when CrO₃ in acetic anhydride is used. (B) C₆H₅CHCl₂ comes from side-chain chlorination of toluene, not from CrO₂Cl₂. (C) C₆H₅CH₂Cl also comes from side-chain chlorination.
Q100.
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
- A. CH$_2$O
- B. SbCl$_5$ ✓
- C. NO$_2$
- D. POCl$_3$
Solution: SbCl₅ SbCl₅ is trigonal bipyramidal and symmetrical, so its bond dipoles cancel and the net dipole moment is zero. (A) CH₂O is trigonal planar, but its polar C=O bond is not cancelled, so it is polar. (C) NO₂ is bent, so it is polar. (D) POCl₃ is tetrahedral with one P=O and three P–Cl bonds, so it is polar.
Q101.
In the equation GPP – R = NPP
R represents :
- A. Retardation factor
- B. Environmental factor
- C. Respiration losses ✓
- D. Radiant energy
Solution: Respiration losses Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus the energy used in respiration (R): GPP – R = NPP.
Q102.
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
- A. $Chara$ ✓
- B. $Marchantia$ $polymorpha$
- C. $Cycas$ $circinalis$
- D. $Carica$ $papaya$
Solution: $\textit{Chara}$ Monoecious plants bear both male and female sex organs on the same plant, as in most species of $\textit{Chara}$. $\textit{Marchantia polymorpha}$, $\textit{Cycas circinalis}$ and $\textit{Carica papaya}$ are dioecious, with male and female organs on separate plants.
Q103.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
- A. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
- B. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
- C. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
- D. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension ✓
Solution: Denaturation, annealing, extension Denaturation: heating to about 94 °C separates the two strands of the DNA. Annealing: the primers bind to the 3′ ends of the single-stranded templates. Extension: $\textit{Taq}$ polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3′-OH end of each primer.
Q104.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) Lenticels
(b) Cork cambium
(c) Secondary cortex
(d) Cork
List-II:
(i) Phellogen
(ii) Suberin deposition
(iii) Exchange of gases
(iv) Phelloderm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) ✓
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Solution: a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii Lenticels are lens-shaped openings in the bark for exchange of gases (a-iii). Cork cambium is also called phellogen (b-i). Secondary cortex is the phelloderm, cut off by the phellogen on its inner side (c-iv). Cork (phellem) cells have suberin deposited in their walls (d-ii).
Q105.
Diadelphous stamens are found in
- A. Citrus
- B. Pea ✓
- C. China rose and citrus
- D. China rose
Solution: Pea Diadelphous stamens are united in two bundles, as in pea; china rose has monoadelphous stamens (one bundle) and citrus polyadelphous (more than two).
Q106.
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
- A. NAA
- B. 2, 4-D ✓
- C. IBA
- D. IAA
Solution: 2,4-D 2,4-D, a synthetic auxin, is widely used to kill dicotyledonous (broad-leaved) weeds; it does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
Q107.
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
- A. Bright orange bands ✓
- B. Dark red bands
- C. Bright blue bands
- D. Yellow bands
Solution: Bright orange bands DNA stained with ethidium bromide is seen as bright orange coloured bands when the gel is exposed to UV light.
Q108.
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
- A. Geitonogamy
- B. Chasmogamy
- C. Cleistogamy
- D. Xenogamy ✓
Solution: Xenogamy Xenogamy is transfer of pollen from the anther of one plant to the stigma of a different plant, so it brings genetically different pollen (geitonogamy uses another flower of the same plant).
Q109.
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
- A. Metaphase II
- B. Anaphase II ✓
- C. Telophase II
- D. Metaphase I
Solution: Anaphase II Anaphase II begins with the splitting of the centromere of each chromosome, so the sister chromatids move to opposite poles.
Q110.
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
- A. Telocentric
- B. Sub-metacentric
- C. Acrocentric
- D. Metacentric ✓
Solution: Metacentric A metacentric chromosome has its centromere in the middle, forming two equal arms (sub-metacentric: nearer one end; acrocentric: close to the end; telocentric: terminal).
Q111.
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
- A. Competitive release
- B. Mutualism
- C. Predation
- D. Resource partitioning ✓
Solution: Resource partitioning Competing species can coexist by resource partitioning, e.g. closely related warblers feeding in different parts of the same tree, which avoids direct competition.
Q112.
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F$_1$ and F$_2$ plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
- A. Punch square
- B. Punnett square ✓
- C. Net square
- D. Bullet square
Solution: Punnett square The Punnett square, devised by the British geneticist Reginald C. Punnett, shows the gametes of the parents, the zygotes and the F₁ and F₂ plants.
Q113.
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
- A. Stem
- B. Axillary bud
- C. Leaf ✓
- D. Shoot apex
Solution: Leaf Leaves perceive the light/dark duration, and a hormonal substance then moves from the leaves to the shoot apices to induce flowering.
Q114.
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
- A. Genetic recombination
- B. Mutation
- C. Genetic drift ✓
- D. Natural selection
Solution: Genetic drift Founder effect is a form of genetic drift: by chance a few individuals found a new isolated population, so its allele frequencies differ from the original population.
Q115.
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
- A. Gene therapy ✓
- B. Molecular diagnosis
- C. Safety testing
- D. Biopiracy
Solution: Gene therapy Gene therapy is a collection of methods that corrects a gene defect diagnosed in a child or embryo by delivering a normal gene into the person's cells or tissue.
Q116.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
- A. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells
- B. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm
- C. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm
- D. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles ✓
Solution: Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles (the incorrect statement) A mature sieve tube element has peripheral cytoplasm and a large vacuole but no nucleus; it is controlled by the nucleus of the companion cell. (A) True: microbodies are present in both plant and animal cells. (B) True: the perinuclear space between the two nuclear membranes is a barrier between nucleus and cytoplasm. (C) True: nuclear pores let RNA and protein molecules pass in both directions.
Q117.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) Cells with active cell division capacity
(b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function
(c) Tissue having different types of cells
(d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen
List-II:
(i) Vascular tissues
(ii) Meristematic tissue
(iii) Sclereids
(iv) Simple tissue
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) ✓
Solution: a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii Cells with active cell division capacity form meristematic tissue (a-ii). A simple tissue has all its cells similar in structure and function (b-iv). Vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) are complex tissues made of different types of cells (c-i). Sclereids are dead cells with highly thickened walls and a narrow lumen (d-iii).
Q118.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) Cristae
(b) Thylakoids
(c) Centromere
(d) Cisternae
List-II:
(i) Primary constriction in chromosome
(ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
- C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Solution: a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii Cristae are infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane (a-iii). Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in the stroma of plastids (b-iv). The centromere is the primary constriction of a chromosome (c-i). Cisternae are flat, disc-shaped sacs of the Golgi apparatus (d-ii).
Q119.
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
- A. DNA ✓
- B. Histones
- C. Polysaccharides
- D. RNA
Solution: DNA After proteins and RNA are removed with protease and ribonuclease, purified DNA precipitates out on adding chilled ethanol, seen as fine threads.
Q120.
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
- A. Amino acids, glucose ✓
- B. Vinblastin, curcumin
- C. Rubber, gums
- D. Morphine, codeine
Solution: Amino acids and glucose (primary metabolites) Amino acids and glucose are primary metabolites, with known roles in normal physiological processes. (B) Vinblastin and curcumin are secondary metabolites (drugs). (C) Rubber and gums are secondary metabolites (polymeric substances). (D) Morphine and codeine are secondary metabolites (alkaloids).
Q121.
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?
- A. $Gracilaria$
- B. $Volvox$
- C. $Ulothrix$
- D. $Ectocarpus$ ✓
Solution: $\textit{Ectocarpus}$ $\textit{Ectocarpus}$ is a brown alga (Phaeophyceae), which stores food as laminarin or mannitol. (A) $\textit{Gracilaria}$ is a red alga, which stores floridean starch. (B) $\textit{Volvox}$ is a green alga, which stores starch. (C) $\textit{Ulothrix}$ is a green alga, which stores starch.
Q122.
Gemmae are present in
- A. Pteridophytes
- B. Some Gymnosperms
- C. Some Liverworts ✓
- D. Mosses
Solution: Some liverworts Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds formed in gemma cups on the thalli of some liverworts such as $\textit{Marchantia}$.
Q123.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- A. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright. ✓
- B. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
- C. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
- D. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
Solution: Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright (the incorrect statement) The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted, because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of the phytoplankton. (B) True: energy is lost at every trophic level, so the pyramid of energy is always upright. (C) True: in a grassland producers outnumber herbivores, which outnumber carnivores. (D) True: this is the correct description of the pyramid of biomass in the sea.
Q124.
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
- A. Flexibility
- B. Plasticity ✓
- C. Maturity
- D. Elasticity
Solution: Plasticity Plasticity is the ability of plants to follow different pathways and form different structures in response to environment or phase of life, e.g. heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur.
Q125.
Amensalism can be represented as:
- A. Species A (+); Species B (+)
- B. Species A ($-$); Species B ($-$)
- C. Species A (+); Species B (0)
- D. Species A ($-$); Species B (0) ✓
Solution: Species A (−); species B (0) Amensalism: one species is harmed and the other is unaffected, (−) and (0). (A) (+, +) is mutualism. (B) (−, −) is competition. (C) (+, 0) is commensalism.
Q126.
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
DNA, with a self-referring arrow labelled (a), gives mRNA by step (b), which gives (d) by step (c).
- A. (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
- B. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein ✓
- C. (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
- D. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
Solution: a-Replication, b-Transcription, c-Translation, d-Protein DNA copying itself is replication (a). DNA to mRNA is transcription (b). mRNA to protein is translation (c), so (d) is protein. Transduction is transfer of genes between bacteria by a bacteriophage, not a step of the central dogma.
Q127.
Genera like $Selaginella$ and $Salvinia$ produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
- A. Heterosorus
- B. Homosporous
- C. Heterosporous ✓
- D. Homosorus
Solution: Heterosporous $\textit{Selaginella}$ and $\textit{Salvinia}$ produce large (macro) and small (micro) spores, so they are heterosporous; most pteridophytes are homosporous.
Q128.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) Cohesion
(b) Adhesion
(c) Surface tension
(d) Guttation
List-II:
(i) More attraction in liquid phase
(ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules
(iii) Water loss in liquid phase
(iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) ✓
Solution: a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii Cohesion: mutual attraction between water molecules (a-ii). Adhesion: attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces, such as the walls of tracheary elements (b-iv). Surface tension: water molecules attract each other more in the liquid phase than in the gas phase (c-i). Guttation: loss of water as liquid drops from leaf tips and margins (d-iii).
Q129.
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
- A. Infrared rays
- B. Gamma rays ✓
- C. Zeatin
- D. Kinetin
Solution: Gamma rays Gamma rays, like X-rays and UV rays, are physical mutagens used to induce mutations in plants; zeatin and kinetin are cytokinins, and infrared rays mainly cause heating.
Q130.
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
- A. Gene amplification
- B. Purification of isolated protein ✓
- C. Detection of gene mutation
- D. Molecular diagnosis
Solution: Purification of isolated protein (not an application of PCR) PCR copies nucleic acids, not proteins, so it cannot purify a protein. (A) PCR makes millions of copies of a gene: gene amplification. (C) PCR is used to detect mutations in genes, e.g. in suspected cancer patients. (D) PCR detects very small amounts of a pathogen's DNA or RNA for early diagnosis.
Q131.
The first stable product of CO$_2$ fixation in Sorghum is
- A. Oxaloacetic acid ✓
- B. Succinic acid
- C. Phosphoglyceric acid
- D. Pyruvic acid
Solution: Oxaloacetic acid $\textit{Sorghum}$ is a C₄ plant: PEP carboxylase fixes CO₂ in mesophyll cells to give the 4-carbon oxaloacetic acid (OAA) first; 3-phosphoglyceric acid is the first product in C₃ plants.
Q132.
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
- A. Brown algae
- B. Red algae ✓
- C. Blue-green algae
- D. Green algae
Solution: Red algae Carrageen is obtained from red algae (Rhodophyceae), which also give agar; algin comes from brown algae.
Q133.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Protoplast fusion
(b) Plant tissue culture
(c) Meristem culture
(d) Micropropagation
List-II:
(i) Totipotency
(ii) Pomato
(iii) Somaclones
(iv) Virus free plants
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) ✓
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Solution: a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii Fusing protoplasts of tomato and potato gave the somatic hybrid pomato (a-ii). Plant tissue culture relies on totipotency, the capacity of a cell or explant to grow into a whole plant (b-i). The meristem of an infected plant is free of virus, so meristem culture gives virus-free plants (c-iv). Micropropagated plants are genetically identical to the parent plant: somaclones (d-iii).
Q134.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
- A. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
- B. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
- C. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
- D. 8-nucleate and 7-celled ✓
Solution: 8-nucleate and 7-celled The mature embryo sac has 7 cells (3 antipodals, 2 synergids, 1 egg cell, 1 central cell) but 8 nuclei, because the central cell holds 2 polar nuclei.
Q135.
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
- A. Climax community
- B. Standing state ✓
- C. Standing crop
- D. Climax
Solution: Standing state Standing state is the amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time; standing crop is the mass of living material at a trophic level.
Q136.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- A. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
- B. Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
- C. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II ✓
- D. Both ATP and NADPH + H$^{+}$ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Solution: Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II (the incorrect statement) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I: the excited electron is cycled back to PS I through the electron transport chain. (A) True: stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase, so they make ATP but not NADPH. (B) True: grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II. (D) True: non-cyclic photophosphorylation uses both photosystems and makes ATP and NADPH + H⁺.
Q137.
Identify the correct statement.
- A. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria ✓
- B. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA
- C. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes
- D. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3$'$ end of hnRNA
Solution: RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate transcription in bacteria Bacterial RNA polymerase associates transiently with the rho ($\rho$) factor to terminate transcription. (B) The template strand, not the coding strand, is copied into mRNA. (C) Split genes (exons with introns) are characteristic of eukaryotes, not prokaryotes. (D) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5′ end of hnRNA; a poly-A tail is added at the 3′ end.
Q138.
Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I:
(a) $Nitrococcus$
(b) $Rhizobium$
(c) $Thiobacillus$
(d) $Nitrobacter$
Column-II:
(i) Denitrification
(ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
(iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
Choose the correct answer from options given below.
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) ✓
Solution: a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii $\textit{Nitrococcus}$ oxidises ammonia to nitrite (a-ii). $\textit{Rhizobium}$ in root nodules fixes atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia (b-iv). $\textit{Thiobacillus}$, with $\textit{Pseudomonas}$, carries out denitrification, nitrate to N₂ (c-i). $\textit{Nitrobacter}$ oxidises nitrite to nitrate (d-iii).
Q139.
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
- A. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA ✓
- B. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
- C. Transcribes only snRNAs
- D. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Solution: Transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs. (B) The precursor of mRNA (hnRNA) is made by RNA polymerase II. (C) RNA polymerase III makes snRNAs, but tRNA and 5S rRNA as well. (D) rRNAs 28S, 18S and 5.8S are made by RNA polymerase I.
Q140.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) S phase
(b) G$_2$ phase
(c) Quiescent stage
(d) G$_1$ phase
List-II:
(i) Proteins are synthesized
(ii) Inactive phase
(iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(iv) DNA replication
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
- C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Solution: a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii S phase: DNA replication (a-iv). G₂ phase: proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis (b-i). Quiescent stage (G₀): an inactive stage; the cells stay metabolically active but do not divide (c-ii). G₁ phase: the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication (d-iii).
Q141.
Select the correct pair.
- A. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells — Conjunctive tissue
- B. Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring — Interfascicular cambium ✓
- C. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark — Spongy parenchyma
- D. Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves — Subsidiary cells
Solution: Cells of medullary rays that form part of the cambial ring: interfascicular cambium Medullary ray cells next to the intrafascicular cambium become meristematic and form the interfascicular cambium, completing the cambial ring. (A) The thick-walled cells around the vascular bundles of a dicot leaf are bundle sheath cells. (C) The loose parenchyma cells that rupture the epidermis to form lenticels are complementary cells. (D) The large, empty, colourless epidermal cells of grass leaves are bulliform cells.
Q142.
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
- A. Poaceae ; Leguminosae
- B. Poaceae ; Solanaceae
- C. Rosaceae ; Leguminosae ✓
- D. Poaceae ; Rosaceae
Solution: Rosaceae and Leguminosae Pollen of some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae stays viable for months, while in cereals such as rice and wheat (Poaceae) it loses viability within about 30 minutes.
Q143.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
- A. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy ✓
- B. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes
- C. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
- D. Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
Solution: Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy Plasmogamy is fusion of the protoplasms of two gametes, motile or non-motile. (B) Organisms that depend on living plants are parasites; saprophytes live on dead organic matter. (C) Some cyanobacteria fix nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts, not sheath cells. (D) Karyogamy is fusion of two nuclei, not of two cells.
Q144.
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
- A. Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film
- B. Mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it ✓
- C. Mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it
- D. Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film
Solution: Mutated gene does not appear on the film, as the probe has no complementarity with it A radioactive probe hybridises only with DNA complementary to it, and only DNA carrying bound probe shows up on the photographic film. The normal gene binds the probe and appears; the mutated gene has no complementarity with the probe, so it does not appear.
Q145.
Plasmid pBR322 has $Pst$I restriction enzyme site within gene $amp^{R}$ that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for $\beta$-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an $E.coli$ strain
- A. The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce $\beta$-galactoside
- B. It will lead to lysis of host cell
- C. It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
- D. It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell ✓
Solution: It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell Inserting the gene at the $\textit{Pst}$ I site inside $amp^R$ inactivates that gene (insertional inactivation). So the recombinant plasmid cannot make the host $\textit{E. coli}$ resistant to ampicillin. (A) The cells have lost ampicillin resistance, so they cannot resist ampicillin. (B) Putting a gene into a plasmid does not lyse the host cell. (C) The inserted gene gives its usual product, not a new protein with dual ability.
Q146.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- A. In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H$^{+}$ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH$_2$ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules ✓
- B. ATP is synthesized through complex V
- C. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration
- D. During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
Solution: One NADH + H⁺ gives 2 ATP and one FADH₂ gives 3 ATP in the ETC (the incorrect statement) In the electron transport chain one NADH + H⁺ gives rise to 3 ATP and one FADH₂ to 2 ATP; the statement reverses these. (B) True: ATP is synthesised by complex V (ATP synthase). (C) True: the oxidation-reduction reactions of the chain set up the proton gradient. (D) True: oxygen acts only at the terminal stage, as the final hydrogen acceptor.
Q147.
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
- A. Repetitive DNA ✓
- B. Single nucleotides
- C. Polymorphic DNA
- D. Satellite DNA
Solution: Repetitive DNA DNA fingerprinting identifies differences in specific regions called repetitive DNA, where a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times (e.g. VNTRs).
Q148.
Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I gives four floral formulas, printed with their symmetry symbols, sex symbols and whorl notations.
Column-II:
(i) Brassicaceae
(ii) Liliaceae
(iii) Fabaceae
(iv) Solanaceae
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
- D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
Solution: a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i Fabaceae: zygomorphic, bisexual, $\mathrm{K_{(5)}\ C_{1+2+(2)}\ A_{(9)+1}\ G_1}$ (a-iii) Solanaceae: actinomorphic, bisexual, $\mathrm{K_{(5)}\ C_{(5)}\ A_5\ G_{(2)}}$ (b-iv) Liliaceae: actinomorphic, bisexual, $\mathrm{P_{(3+3)}\ A_{3+3}\ G_{(3)}}$ (c-ii) Brassicaceae: actinomorphic, bisexual, $\mathrm{K_{2+2}\ C_4\ A_{2+4}\ G_{(2)}}$ (d-i)
Q149.
In the exponential growth equation $N_t = N_0e^{rt}$, $e$ represents
- A. The base of exponential logarithms
- B. The base of natural logarithms ✓
- C. The base of geometric logarithms
- D. The base of number logarithms
Solution: The base of natural logarithms In $N_t = N_0e^{rt}$, $e$ is the base of natural logarithms (2.71828), $r$ the intrinsic rate of natural increase and $N_0$ the population density at time zero.
Q150.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) Protein
(b) Unsaturated fatty acid
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Polysaccharide
List-II:
(i) C = C double bonds
(ii) Phosphodiester bonds
(iii) Glycosidic bonds
(iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
Solution: a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii Amino acids in a protein are joined by peptide bonds (a-iv). Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more C=C double bonds (b-i). Nucleotides in a nucleic acid are joined by phosphodiester bonds (c-ii). Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide are joined by glycosidic bonds (d-iii).
Q151.
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
- A. Zygotene
- B. Diakinesis ✓
- C. Pachytene
- D. Leptotene
Solution: Diakinesis Diakinesis is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata; chiasmata appear in diplotene, bivalents form in zygotene and crossing over occurs in pachytene.
Q152.
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
- A. $Hemidactylus$
- B. $Macropus$
- C. $Ornithorhynchus$
- D. $Neophron$ ✓
Solution: $\textit{Neophron}$ Birds have hollow, pneumatic (air-filled) long bones, and $\textit{Neophron}$ (vulture) is a bird. (A) $\textit{Hemidactylus}$ (wall lizard) is a reptile. (B) $\textit{Macropus}$ (kangaroo) is a mammal. (C) $\textit{Ornithorhynchus}$ (platypus) is a mammal.
Q153.
Match the following:
List-I:
(a) $Physalia$
(b) $Limulus$
(c) $Ancylostoma$
(d) $Pinctada$
List-II:
(i) Pearl oyster
(ii) Portuguese Man of War
(iii) Living fossil
(iv) Hookworm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) ✓
- C. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Solution: a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i $\textit{Physalia}$ is the Portuguese man of war (a-ii). $\textit{Limulus}$, the king crab, is a living fossil (b-iii). $\textit{Ancylostoma}$ is the hookworm (c-iv). $\textit{Pinctada}$ is the pearl oyster (d-i).
Q154.
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
- A. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
- B. In females, 7$^{\text{th}}$-9$^{\text{th}}$ sterna together form a genital pouch
- C. 10$^{\text{th}}$ abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci
- D. A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut ✓
Solution: Ring of gastric caeca at the junction of midgut and hindgut (the incorrect statement) The ring of gastric caeca lies at the junction of foregut and midgut; at the junction of midgut and hindgut there is a ring of Malpighian tubules. (A) True: the hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts. (B) True: in females the boat-shaped 7th sternum, with the 8th and 9th sterna, forms the genital pouch. (C) True: the 10th abdominal segment of both sexes bears a pair of anal cerci.
Q155.
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
- A. Muscular dystrophy
- B. Myasthenia gravis ✓
- C. Gout
- D. Arthritis
Solution: Myasthenia gravis Myasthenia gravis is an auto-immune disorder of the neuromuscular junction causing fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle (muscular dystrophy is genetic degeneration of muscle; gout is uric acid crystals in joints).
Q156.
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
- A. Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
- B. Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
- C. Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma ✓
- D. Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
Solution: Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma AB blood has antigens A and B on its RBCs but no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in its plasma, so donated RBCs of any group are not agglutinated. (A) A and B antigens are carried on RBCs, not in plasma, so their absence from plasma explains nothing. (B) Antibodies are in plasma, not on RBCs, and AB blood has none. (D) AB red cells carry both antigens A and B.
Q157.
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:
- A. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
- B. The cells of bone marrow
- C. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney ✓
- D. Alpha cells of pancreas
Solution: Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney The juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete erythropoietin, which stimulates RBC formation (erythropoiesis).
Q158.
Veneral diseases can spread through :
(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
- A. (b), (c) and (d) only
- B. (b) and (c) only ✓
- C. (a) and (c) only
- D. (a), (b) and (c) only
Solution: Only (b) blood transfusion and (c) mother to foetus Sexually transmitted infections spread by sexual contact, by sharing needles or surgical instruments with infected persons, by transfusion of infected blood (b) and from an infected mother to the foetus (c). Sterile needles (a) carry no infection, the diseases are not inherited (e), and kissing (d) is not a usual route.
Q159.
With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A. (b) and (c) only
- B. (a), (c) and (d) only ✓
- C. (a) and (d) only
- D. (b) and (d) only
Solution: Statements (a), (c) and (d) only Insulin is made as pro-insulin, which has an extra stretch called the C-peptide (c); it is removed on maturation, so mature insulin lacks it (a). The A and B chains of insulin are joined by disulphide bridges (d). Statement (b) is wrong: for rDNA insulin the A and B chains are made separately and then joined, so there is no C-peptide.
Q160.
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O$_2$) and carbon dioxide (CO$_2$) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:
- A. pO$_2$ = 40 and pCO$_2$ = 45
- B. pO$_2$ = 95 and pCO$_2$ = 40
- C. pO$_2$ = 159 and pCO$_2$ = 0.3
- D. pO$_2$ = 104 and pCO$_2$ = 40 ✓
Solution: pO₂ = 104 and pCO₂ = 40 (mm Hg) In the alveoli pO₂ is 104 mm Hg and pCO₂ is 40 mm Hg; 159 and 0.3 are for atmospheric air, 40 and 45 for deoxygenated blood, 95 and 40 for oxygenated blood.
Q161.
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
- A. Renin
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Thrombokinase
- D. Thrombin ✓
Solution: Thrombin Thrombokinase converts prothrombin into thrombin, and thrombin converts inactive fibrinogens into fibrins, whose network of threads forms the clot.
Q162.
Identify the incorrect pair
- A. Toxin – Abrin
- B. Lectins – Concanavalin A
- C. Drugs – Ricin ✓
- D. Alkaloids – Codeine
Solution: Drugs – Ricin (the incorrect pair) Ricin is a toxin (from $\textit{Ricinus}$), not a drug; vinblastin and curcumin are examples of drugs. (A) Correct pair: abrin is a toxin. (B) Correct pair: concanavalin A is a lectin. (D) Correct pair: codeine is an alkaloid.
Q163.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) $Aspergillus$ $niger$
(b) $Acetobacter$ $aceti$
(c) $Clostridium$ $butylicum$
(d) $Lactobacillus$
List-II:
(i) Acetic Acid
(ii) Lactic Acid
(iii) Citric Acid
(iv) Butyric Acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
- D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) ✓
Solution: a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii $\textit{Aspergillus niger}$, a fungus, is used to produce citric acid (a-iii). $\textit{Acetobacter aceti}$, a bacterium, produces acetic acid (b-i). $\textit{Clostridium butylicum}$, a bacterium, produces butyric acid (c-iv). $\textit{Lactobacillus}$, a bacterium, produces lactic acid (d-ii).
Q164.
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
- A. LNG 20 ✓
- B. Cu 7
- C. Multiload 375
- D. CuT
Solution: LNG-20 LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD, which makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms; Cu 7, Multiload 375 and CuT are copper-releasing IUDs.
Q165.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Metamerism
(b) Canal system
(c) Comb plates
(d) Cnidoblasts
List-II:
(i) Coelenterata
(ii) Ctenophora
(iii) Annelida
(iv) Porifera
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Solution: a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i Metamerism, the division of the body into segments, is characteristic of Annelida (a-iii). The water canal system is characteristic of Porifera (b-iv). Ctenophores have eight external rows of ciliated comb plates for locomotion (c-ii). Cnidoblasts (cnidocytes) are characteristic of Coelenterata (d-i).
Q166.
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
- A. Okazaki sequences
- B. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences ✓
- C. Poly(A) tail sequences
- D. Degenerate primer sequence
Solution: Palindromic nucleotide sequences Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence, which reads the same on the two strands when read in the same orientation, and cuts the DNA there.
Q167.
Succus entericus is referred to as:
- A. Intestinal juice ✓
- B. Gastric juice
- C. Chyme
- D. Pancreatic juice
Solution: Intestinal juice Succus entericus is the intestinal juice, formed by the secretions of the brush border cells and goblet cells of the intestinal mucosa.
Q168.
Read the following statements
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
- B. (a), (d) and (e) are correct
- C. (b), (c) and (e) are correct ✓
- D. (c), (d) and (e) are correct
Solution: Statements (b), (c) and (e) are correct Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate (b true). Roundworms (Aschelminthes) have organ-system level of body organisation (c true). The water vascular system is characteristic of echinoderms (e true). Metagenesis is seen in cnidarians such as $\textit{Obelia}$, not in helminths (a false). Comb plates of ctenophores help in locomotion, not digestion (d false).
Q169.
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
- A. DNA dependent RNA polymerase ✓
- B. DNA Ligase
- C. DNase
- D. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
Solution: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase Bacteria have a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that carries out all of transcription, joining the $\sigma$ factor for initiation and the $\rho$ factor for termination.
Q170.
The centriole undergoes duplication during:
- A. Prophase
- B. Metaphase
- C. G$_2$ phase
- D. S-phase ✓
Solution: S phase In animal cells the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm during S phase, while DNA replicates in the nucleus.
Q171.
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
- A. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles ✓
- B. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
- C. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
- D. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Solution: Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles The endomembrane system is the ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles, whose functions are coordinated. Mitochondria are not part of it, as their functions are not coordinated with these, and ribosomes have no membrane, so B, C and D are wrong.
Q172.
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
- A. Grasshopper
- B. Cockroach
- C. House fly ✓
- D. Fire fly
Solution: House fly The house fly ($\textit{Musca domestica}$) belongs to the family Muscidae, order Diptera, class Insecta.
Q173.
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
- A. Stratosphere
- B. Ozone ✓
- C. Troposphere
- D. CFCs
Solution: Ozone The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured in Dobson units (DU).
Q174.
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
- A. 75%
- B. 25% ✓
- C. 100%
- D. 50%
Solution: 25% Sickle-cell anaemia is autosomal recessive, so only $\text{Hb}^{\text{S}}\text{Hb}^{\text{S}}$ individuals are diseased. $\text{Hb}^{\text{A}}\text{Hb}^{\text{S}} \times \text{Hb}^{\text{A}}\text{Hb}^{\text{S}}$ gives $\text{Hb}^{\text{A}}\text{Hb}^{\text{A}} : \text{Hb}^{\text{A}}\text{Hb}^{\text{S}} : \text{Hb}^{\text{S}}\text{Hb}^{\text{S}} = 1 : 2 : 1$ ∴ One in four, i.e. 25% of the progeny, is diseased.
Q175.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I:
(a) Vaults
(b) IUDs
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Tubectomy
List-II:
(i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked
(ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus
(iv) Removal of fallopian tube
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) ✓
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Solution: a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv Vaults, like diaphragms and cervical caps, cover the cervix and block the entry of sperms (a-i). IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus (b-iii). In vasectomy a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up (c-ii). In tubectomy a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up (d-iv).
Q176.
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
- A. Low pO$_2$, high pCO$_2$, more H$^{+}$, higher temperature
- B. High pO$_2$, high pCO$_2$, less H$^{+}$, higher temperature
- C. Low pO$_2$, low pCO$_2$, more H$^{+}$, higher temperature
- D. High pO$_2$, low pCO$_2$, less H$^{+}$, lower temperature ✓
Solution: High pO₂, low pCO₂, less H⁺, lower temperature In the alveoli high pO₂, low pCO₂, lesser H⁺ concentration and lower temperature favour formation of oxyhaemoglobin; the opposite conditions in the tissues favour its dissociation.
Q177.
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
- A. Vitelline membrane
- B. Perivitelline space
- C. Zona pellucida ✓
- D. Corona radiata
Solution: Zona pellucida Sperms bind to receptors on the zona pellucida, the layer around the ovum beneath the corona radiata; after one sperm enters, changes in it block other sperms.
Q178.
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?
- A. Improve resistance to diseases ✓
- B. Improve vitamin content
- C. Improve micronutrient and mineral content
- D. Improve protein content
Solution: Improve resistance to diseases (not an objective of biofortification) Biofortification breeds crops for better nutritional quality; disease resistance is the aim of breeding for disease resistance. (B) Higher vitamin content is an objective of biofortification. (C) Higher micronutrient and mineral content is an objective of biofortification. (D) Higher protein content and quality is an objective of biofortification.
Q179.
Sphincter of oddi is present at:
- A. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum ✓
- B. Gastro-oesophageal junction
- C. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
- D. Ileo-caecal junction
Solution: Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-pancreatic duct, which is guarded by the sphincter of Oddi.
Q180.
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
- A. Extension
- B. Denaturation ✓
- C. Ligation
- D. Annealing
Solution: Denaturation Denaturation, the first step of PCR, needs a high temperature (about 94 °C) to separate the two DNA strands, so it is the step affected first.
Q181.
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2$n$) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G$_1$ phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
Solution: 8 S phase doubles the amount of DNA (each chromosome now has two chromatids) but not the number of chromosomes, so it stays 8.
Q182.
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
- A. tRNA
- B. rRNA
- C. siRNA ✓
- D. mRNA
Solution: siRNA siRNA (small interfering RNA) silences specific mRNAs by RNA interference; it takes no part in protein synthesis. (A) tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code. (B) rRNA has a structural and catalytic role in the ribosome during translation. (D) mRNA provides the template for translation.
Q183.
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
- A. They are involuntary muscles
- B. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs ✓
- C. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
- D. These muscle have no striations
Solution: Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs (the incorrect statement) Intercalated discs are found only in cardiac muscle, where they let the cells contract as a unit. (A) True: smooth muscles are involuntary. (C) True: they occur in the walls of blood vessels, stomach and intestine. (D) True: smooth muscle fibres have no striations.
Q184.
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
- A. T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
- B. T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 ✓
- C. T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
- D. T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
Solution: T : 30%, G : 20%, C : 20% Chargaff's rule for double-stranded DNA: A = T and G = C. A = 30%, so T = 30%; then G + C = 100 − 60 = 40%, so G = C = 20%.
Q185.
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?
- A. Synthesis of prostaglandins
- B. Release of Oxytocin
- C. Release of Prolactin ✓
- D. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Solution: Release of prolactin (no role in starting parturition) Prolactin controls milk production (lactation) and has no part in starting parturition. (A) Prostaglandins stimulate contraction of the uterine muscle. (B) Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary causes strong uterine contractions. (D) A rise in the estrogen to progesterone ratio at term prepares the uterus to contract.
Q186.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Filariasis
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Ringworm
List-II:
(i) $Haemophilus$ $influenzae$
(ii) $Trichophyton$
(iii) $Wuchereria$ $bancrofti$
(iv) $Entamoeba$ $histolytica$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
- B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Solution: a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii Filariasis is caused by the filarial worm $\textit{Wuchereria bancrofti}$ (a-iii). Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) is caused by the protozoan $\textit{Entamoeba histolytica}$ (b-iv). Pneumonia is caused by bacteria such as $\textit{Streptococcus pneumoniae}$ and $\textit{Haemophilus influenzae}$ (c-i). Ringworm is caused by fungi such as $\textit{Microsporum}$, $\textit{Trichophyton}$ and $\textit{Epidermophyton}$ (d-ii).
Q187.
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
(d) It is the first body segment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
- B. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
- C. (b) and (c) are correct
- D. (a), (b) and (c) are correct ✓
Solution: Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct The prostomium is a lobe that covers the mouth (a) and acts as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil (b). It is sensory in function (c). Statement (d) is wrong: the first body segment is the peristomium (buccal segment), which contains the mouth.
Q188.
Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- B. (A) is true but (R) is false
- C. (A) is false but (R) is true
- D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) ✓
Solution: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A Assertion is true: at high altitude a person may get altitude sickness, with nausea, fatigue, breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason is true and explains it: at the low atmospheric pressure of high altitude the body does not get enough oxygen.
Q189.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Scapula
(b) Cranium
(c) Sternum
(d) Vertebral column
List-II:
(i) Cartilaginous joints
(ii) Flat bone
(iii) Fibrous joints
(iv) Triangular flat bone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
- A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
- D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Solution: a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i The scapula is a large triangular flat bone on the dorsal side of the thorax (a-iv). The flat bones of the cranium are joined by sutures, which are fibrous joints (b-iii). The sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of the thorax (c-ii). Adjacent vertebrae are joined by cartilaginous joints that allow limited movement (d-i).
Q190.
Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
- B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
- C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true ✓
- D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true Statement I is false: AUG codes only for methionine (and is the initiator codon); phenylalanine is coded by UUU and UUC. Statement II is true: AAA and AAG both code for lysine, an example of the degeneracy of the code.
Q191.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Allen's Rule
(b) Physiological adaptation
(c) Behavioural adaptation
(d) Biochemical adaptation
List-II:
(i) Kangaroo rat
(ii) Desert lizard
(iii) Marine fish at depth
(iv) Polar seal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
- C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Solution: a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii Allen's rule: mammals of cold climates have shorter ears and limbs to reduce heat loss, as in the polar seal (a-iv). The kangaroo rat gets water from internal fat oxidation and passes concentrated urine: a physiological adaptation (b-i). Desert lizards bask in the sun or move into shade to keep their body temperature steady: a behavioural adaptation (c-ii). Fishes living at great depths in the sea are biochemically adapted to survive there (d-iii).
Q192.
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
(a) 'H' zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
- B. (b), (c), (d), (e) only
- C. (b), (d), (e), (a) only
- D. (a), (c), (d), (e) only ✓
Solution: Events (a), (c), (d) and (e) only Myosin heads hydrolyse ATP to form cross bridges that pull actin towards the centre of the A band, then release ADP and Pi (d). The Z lines attached to the actins are pulled inwards, shortening the sarcomere (e). As the thin filaments slide over the thick ones, the H zone disappears (a) and the I band gets shorter (c). Statement (b) is wrong: the A band keeps its length.
Q193.
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
- A. Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
- B. Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
- C. Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
- D. Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation ✓
Solution: Cow is administered hormone having LH-like activity for superovulation (the incorrect statement) In MOET the cow is given hormones with FSH-like activity, not LH-like activity, to induce follicular maturation and superovulation. (A) True: the superovulated cow yields 6–8 eggs instead of one. (B) True: it is mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated. (C) True: fertilised eggs at the 8–32 cell stage are transferred to surrogate mothers.
Q194.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I:
(a) Adaptive radiation
(b) Convergent evolution
(c) Divergent evolution
(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action
List-II:
(i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides
(ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale
(iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird
(iv) Darwin Finches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
- B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- C. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
Solution: a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i Darwin's finches evolved from one ancestral seed-eater into many forms: adaptive radiation (a-iv). Wings of butterfly and bird are analogous organs, the result of convergent evolution (b-iii). Forelimb bones of man and whale are homologous organs, the result of divergent evolution (c-ii). Excessive use of herbicides and pesticides selects resistant varieties: evolution by anthropogenic action (d-i).
Q195.
Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
- A. (c) and (d) only
- B. (b) and (c) only ✓
- C. (b) and (e) only
- D. (a) and (b) only
Solution: Statements (b) and (c) only Lecithin is a phospholipid (b true). Glycerol is trihydroxy propane (c true). Fatty acids with only single bonds are saturated, not unsaturated (a false). Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon, and arachidonic acid has 20 (d and e false).
Q196.
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
- A. Corpus luteum ✓
- B. Foetus
- C. Uterus
- D. Graafian follicle
Solution: Corpus luteum Relaxin is secreted by the ovary, from its corpus luteum, in the later phase of pregnancy; no Graafian follicle develops during pregnancy.
Q197.
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
- A. Parkinson's disease
- B. Digestive disorder
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Dysfunction of Immune system ✓
Solution: Dysfunction of the immune system Adenosine deaminase is crucial for the immune system to function, so ADA deficiency causes immunodeficiency; it was the first disorder treated by gene therapy (1990).
Q198.
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?
- A. The pH of histones is slightly acidic ✓
- B. Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine
- C. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
- D. Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules
Solution: The pH of histones is slightly acidic (the incorrect statement) Histones are basic proteins, rich in the basic amino acids lysine and arginine, so they are not acidic. (B) True: histones are rich in lysine and arginine residues. (C) True: these residues carry positive charges in their side chains. (D) True: eight histone molecules form a histone octamer.
Q199.
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
- A. Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively ✓
- B. Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
- C. Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
- D. Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively
Solution: Tight junctions and gap junctions, respectively Tight junctions stop substances from leaking across a tissue. Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions and small molecules. Adhering junctions only cement neighbouring cells together, so B, C and D are wrong.