NEET (UG) 2021 — Code N1 — Answer Key & Solutions

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Q1.

A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since

  • A. A large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
  • B. A large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
  • C. A large aperture provides a better resolution.
  • D. All of the above ✓

Solution: With a larger aperture of the objective lens, the light gathering power in the telescope is high. Also, the resolving power or the ability to observe two objects distinctly also depends on the diameter of the objective. Thus an objective of large diameter is preferred. Also, with large diameters fainter objects can be observed. Hence it also contributes to the better quality and visibility of images. Hence, all options are correct.

Q2.

A thick current carrying cable of radius '$R$' carries current '$I$' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field $B(r)$ due to the cable with the distance '$r$' from the axis of the cable is represented by

  • A. A straight line rising continuously with $r$
  • B. A straight line rising to a peak at $r = R$, then falling away as a hyperbola ✓
  • C. A curve rising and saturating at a constant value
  • D. A curve rising ever more steeply with $r$

Solution: From Ampere's circuital law, $$B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi R^{2}} \cdot r \qquad \text{if } r < R \ \Rightarrow\ B_{\text{inside}} \propto r$$ $$B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r} \qquad \text{if } r \geq R \ \Rightarrow\ B_{\text{outside}} \propto \frac{1}{r}$$ Hence the correct plot of magnetic field $B$ with distance $r$ from the axis of the cable rises as a straight line up to $r = R$ and then falls away as a hyperbola.

Q3.

A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is

  • A. 6.28 s
  • B. 3.14 s
  • C. 0.628 s ✓
  • D. 0.0628 s

Solution: For a spring, $kx = F$. Given $x = 5$ cm, $F = 10$ N: $$\Rightarrow\ k(5 \times 10^{-2}) = 10$$ $$\Rightarrow\ k = \frac{1000}{5} = 200\ \text{N/m}$$ Now, for a spring-mass system undergoing SHM, $$T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}$$ Given $m = 2$ kg, $$\Rightarrow\ T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{2}{200}} = \frac{2\pi}{10} = 0.628\ \text{s}$$

Q4.

Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? ($g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$)

  • A. 8.1 kW ✓
  • B. 12.3 kW
  • C. 7.0 kW
  • D. 10.2 kW

Solution: Incident power on turbine $$= \frac{d(mgh)}{dt} = gh\frac{dm}{dt}$$ $$= 10 \times 60 \times 15 = 9000\ \text{W}$$ Now, losses are 10%: $$\therefore\ \text{power generated} = \left(1 - \frac{10}{100}\right) \times 9000$$ $$= 8100\ \text{W} = 8.1\ \text{kW}$$

Q5.

Polar molecules are the molecules

  • A. Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges
  • B. Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
  • C. Having a permanent electric dipole moment ✓
  • D. Having zero dipole moment

Solution: In polar molecules, the centre of positive charges does not coincide with the centre of negative charges. Hence, these molecules have a permanent electric dipole moment of their own.

Q6.

Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of $p$-$n$ junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

  • A. (A) and (B) both are incorrect
  • B. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. ✓
  • C. (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
  • D. (A) and (B) both are correct.

Solution: In reverse bias, after breakdown, the voltage across the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore a zener diode is connected in reverse bias when used as a voltage regulator. The potential barrier of a silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V, not 0.1 V to 0.3 V. So statement (A) is correct and statement (B) is incorrect.

Q7.

An inductor of inductance $L$, a capacitor of capacitance $C$ and a resistor of resistance '$R$' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference '$V$' volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across $L$, $C$ and $R$ is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through $LCR$ series circuit is $10\sqrt{2}$ A. The impedance of the circuit is

  • A. $\dfrac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\ \Omega$
  • B. $4\ \Omega$
  • C. $5\ \Omega$ ✓
  • D. $4\sqrt{2}\ \Omega$

Solution: $V_L = 40$ volt, $V_R = 40$ volt, $V_C = 10$ volt. Now, $$V_{RMS} = \sqrt{V_R^{2} + \left(V_L - V_C\right)^{2}}$$ $$= \sqrt{(40)^{2} + (40 - 10)^{2}} = 50\ \text{V}$$ $$I_{RMS} = \frac{I_0}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{10\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}} = 10\ \text{A}$$ Since $V_{RMS} = I_{RMS} \times Z$, $$\therefore\ Z = \frac{V_{RMS}}{I_{RMS}} = \frac{50}{10} = 5\ \Omega$$

Q8.

The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is $v$. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is

  • A. $2v$
  • B. $3v$
  • C. $4v$ ✓
  • D. $v$

Solution: Escape velocity from the Earth's surface $$v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}} = \sqrt{\frac{2G\rho\dfrac{4}{3}\pi R^{3}}{R}} = \sqrt{\frac{8G\rho\pi}{3}R^{2}}$$ $$v_e \propto R \qquad \text{(for same density)}$$ $$\frac{v}{v_1} = \frac{R}{4R}$$ $$v_1 = 4v$$

Q9.

A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is

  • A. 0.026 cm
  • B. 0.26 cm
  • C. 0.052 cm ✓
  • D. 0.52 cm

Solution: Here, pitch of the screw gauge, $P = 1$ mm, and number of circular divisions, $n = 100$. Thus least count $$LC = \frac{P}{n} = \frac{1}{100} = 0.01\ \text{mm} = 0.001\ \text{cm}$$ So, diameter of the wire $= MSR + (CSR \times LC)$ $$= 0 + (52 \times 0.001\ \text{cm}) = 0.052\ \text{cm}$$

Q10.

A cup of coffee cools from 90$^{\circ}$C to 80$^{\circ}$C in $t$ minutes, when the room temperature is 20$^{\circ}$C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80$^{\circ}$C to 60$^{\circ}$C at a room temperature same at 20$^{\circ}$C is

  • A. $\dfrac{13}{5}t$ ✓
  • B. $\dfrac{10}{13}t$
  • C. $\dfrac{5}{13}t$
  • D. $\dfrac{13}{10}t$

Solution: From the average form of Newton's law of cooling, $$-\left(\frac{T_1 + T_2}{2} - T_s\right)K = \frac{T_1 - T_2}{\Delta t}$$ where $T_1$ and $T_2$ are initial and final temperature and $T_s$ is the surrounding temperature. $$\Rightarrow\ -K\left[\frac{(90 + 80)}{2} - 20\right] = \frac{90 - 80}{t}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ -K(65) = \frac{10}{t} \ \Rightarrow\ K = \frac{-2}{13t}$$ In the second case, $$-K\left(\frac{80 + 60}{2} - 20\right) = \frac{(80 - 60)}{t_1}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ -K(50) = \frac{20}{t_1} \ \Rightarrow\ \frac{2}{13t}(50) = \frac{20}{t_1}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ t_1 = \frac{13t}{5}$$

Q11.

The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be

  • A. $\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$ ✓
  • B. $\dfrac{2}{3}$
  • C. $\dfrac{2}{3\sqrt{2}}$
  • D. $\dfrac{1}{2}$

Solution: The activity of a radioactive substance is given as $$A = A_0\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\frac{t}{T_{1/2}}}$$ Now, $$\frac{A}{A_0} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\frac{t}{T_{1/2}}}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{A}{A_0} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\frac{150}{100}} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{A}{A_0} = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}$$

Q12.

The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of $3.3 \times 10^{-3}$ watt will be ($h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34}$ J s)

  • A. $10^{17}$
  • B. $10^{16}$ ✓
  • C. $10^{15}$
  • D. $10^{18}$

Solution: The power of a source is given as $$P = \frac{E}{t} = \frac{n}{t}\left(\frac{hc}{\lambda}\right)$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{n}{t} = \frac{P}{\left(\dfrac{hc}{\lambda}\right)}$$ (Here $\dfrac{n}{t}$ is the number of photons emitted per second) $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{n}{t} = \frac{3.3 \times 10^{-3} \times 6 \times 10^{-7}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}$$ $$= 10^{16}\ \text{photons per second}$$

Q13.

A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field '$\vec{E}$' in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is '$d$' and the area of each plate is '$A$', the energy stored in the capacitor is ($\varepsilon_0$ = permittivity of free space)

  • A. $\varepsilon_0 E A d$
  • B. $\dfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2} A d$ ✓
  • C. $\dfrac{E^{2}Ad}{\varepsilon_0}$
  • D. $\dfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}$

Solution: Energy density associated with the electric field is given by $$u = \frac{dU}{dV} = \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ dU = \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}\,dV$$ Total energy stored in the space between the capacitor will be $$U = \int dU = \int \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}\,dV$$ $$= \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}\int dV \qquad [E\ \text{is constant}]$$ $$= \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}V = \frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0 E^{2}Ad \qquad [V = Ad]$$

Q14.

If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.

  • A. $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}^{2}]$ ✓
  • B. $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}^{-1}]$
  • C. $[\text{F}][\text{A}^{-1}][\text{T}]$
  • D. $[\text{F}][\text{A}][\text{T}]$

Solution: Energy, $E \propto \text{F}^{a}\text{A}^{b}\text{T}^{c}$ $$[E] = [\text{F}^{a}][\text{A}^{b}][\text{T}^{c}]$$ $$\Rightarrow\ [\text{ML}^{2}\text{T}^{-2}] = [\text{MLT}^{-2}]^{a}[\text{LT}^{-2}]^{b}[\text{T}]^{c}$$ $$[\text{ML}^{2}\text{T}^{-2}] = [\text{M}^{a}\text{L}^{a+b}\text{T}^{-2a-2b+c}]$$ Comparing dimensions on both sides, $$a = 1;\quad a + b = 2 \Rightarrow b = 1$$ $$-2 = -2a - 2b + c \Rightarrow -2 = -2 - 2 + c \Rightarrow c = 2$$ $$[E] = [\text{FAT}^{2}]$$

Q15.

The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is Two capacitors of capacitance $C$ form the upper and lower branches between terminals $A$ and $B$, and a third capacitor $C$ is connected vertically between the right-hand ends of those two branches.

  • A. $2C$ ✓
  • B. $\dfrac{C}{2}$
  • C. $\dfrac{3C}{2}$
  • D. $3C$

Solution: In the given circuit, the points at the right-hand ends of the two branches and the terminal $B$ are all at the same potential, as they are connected by a conducting wire. So the third capacitor is short circuited. It does not store any charge. The circuit can therefore be redrawn as the two remaining capacitors directly in parallel between $A$ and $B$: $$C_{AB} = C + C = 2C \qquad \text{(Parallel combination)}$$

Q16.

A capacitor of capacitance '$C$', is connected across an ac source of voltage $V$, given by $$V = V_0\sin\omega t$$ The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by

  • A. $I_d = \dfrac{V_0}{\omega C}\cos\omega t$
  • B. $I_d = \dfrac{V_0}{\omega C}\sin\omega t$
  • C. $I_d = V_0\omega C\sin\omega t$
  • D. $I_d = V_0\omega C\cos\omega t$ ✓

Solution: Given $V = V_0\sin\omega t$. Now the displacement current $I_d$ is given by $$I_d = C\frac{dV}{dt}$$ $$= C\frac{d}{dt}\left(V_0\sin\omega t\right)$$ $$= C\left(V_0\omega\right)\cos\omega t$$ $$I_d = V_0\omega C\cos\omega t$$

Q17.

In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?

  • A. 21.6 cm
  • B. 64 cm
  • C. 62 cm
  • D. 60 cm ✓

Solution: From the application of a potentiometer to compare two cells of emfs $E_1$ and $E_2$ by balancing lengths $\ell_1$ and $\ell_2$, $$\frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{\ell_1}{\ell_2}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \ell_2 = \ell_1\left(\frac{E_2}{E_1}\right) = (36\ \text{cm})\left(\frac{2.5\ \text{V}}{1.5\ \text{V}}\right)$$ $$= 60\ \text{cm}$$

Q18.

Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations. Column-I: (A) Drift Velocity (B) Electrical Resistivity (C) Relaxation Period (D) Current Density Column-II: (P) $\dfrac{m}{ne^{2}\rho}$ (Q) $nev_d$ (R) $\dfrac{eE}{m}\tau$ (S) $\dfrac{E}{J}$

  • A. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
  • B. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
  • C. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
  • D. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q) ✓

Solution: Drift velocity, $v_d = \dfrac{eE\tau}{m}$ Electrical resistivity, $\rho = \dfrac{1}{\sigma} = \dfrac{E}{J}$ Relaxation period, $\tau = \dfrac{m}{ne^{2}\rho}$ Current density, $J = \dfrac{I}{A} = nev_d$ So (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q).

Q19.

A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is

  • A. 9.4 MeV
  • B. 804 MeV
  • C. 216 MeV ✓
  • D. 0.9 MeV

Solution: Mass number of reactant $= 240$, $BE$ per nucleon $= 7.6$ MeV. Mass number of products $= 120$ each, $BE$ per nucleon of product $= 8.5$ MeV. Total gain in $BE$ = ($BE$) of products $-$ ($BE$) of reactants $$= [120 + 120] \times 8.5 - [240] \times 7.6$$ $$= (240) \times 8.5 - 240 \times 7.6$$ $$= (2040 - 1824)\ \text{MeV}$$ Gain in $BE$ = 216 MeV

Q20.

Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is $\sqrt{3}$.

  • A. 30$^{\circ}$
  • B. 45$^{\circ}$
  • C. 90$^{\circ}$
  • D. 60$^{\circ}$ ✓

Solution: From the ray diagram shown in the figure, at point $P$ Snell's law gives $$\sqrt{3}\sin 30^{\circ} = 1 \times \sin e$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \sin e = \sqrt{3} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ e = 60^{\circ}$$

Q21.

If $E$ and $G$ respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then $\dfrac{E}{G}$ has the dimensions of

  • A. $[\text{M}][\text{L}^{-1}][\text{T}^{-1}]$
  • B. $[\text{M}][\text{L}^{0}][\text{T}^{0}]$
  • C. $[\text{M}^{2}][\text{L}^{-2}][\text{T}^{-1}]$
  • D. $[\text{M}^{2}][\text{L}^{-1}][\text{T}^{0}]$ ✓

Solution: Dimensional formula of energy $$[E] = [\text{M}^{1}\text{L}^{2}\text{T}^{-2}] \qquad \ldots(\text{I})$$ Dimensional formula of gravitational constant $$[G] = [\text{M}^{-1}\text{L}^{3}\text{T}^{-2}] \qquad \ldots(\text{II})$$ From (I) and (II), $$\frac{[E]}{[G]} = \frac{[\text{M}^{1}\text{L}^{2}\text{T}^{-2}]}{[\text{M}^{-1}\text{L}^{3}\text{T}^{-2}]} = [\text{M}^{2}\text{L}^{-1}\text{T}^{0}]$$ Hence, dimensions of $\left[\dfrac{E}{G}\right] = [\text{M}^{2}\text{L}^{-1}\text{T}^{0}]$.

Q22.

A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time $t = 0$. Let $S_n$ be the distance travelled by the block in the interval $t = n - 1$ to $t = n$. Then, the ratio $\dfrac{S_n}{S_{n+1}}$ is

  • A. $\dfrac{2n - 1}{2n + 1}$ ✓
  • B. $\dfrac{2n + 1}{2n - 1}$
  • C. $\dfrac{2n}{2n - 1}$
  • D. $\dfrac{2n - 1}{2n}$

Solution: Suppose $\theta$ is the inclination of the inclined plane, so the acceleration along the inclined plane is $a = g\sin\theta$. $S_n$ = distance travelled by the object during the $n^{\text{th}}$ second, with initial speed $u = 0$. By the equation of uniformly accelerated motion, $$S_n = u + \frac{a}{2}(2n - 1)$$ $$S_n = 0 + \frac{g\sin\theta}{2}(2n - 1) \qquad \ldots(i)$$ Distance travelled during the $(n + 1)^{\text{th}}$ second, $$S_{n+1} = 0 + \frac{g\sin\theta}{2}\left[2(n + 1) - 1\right] = \frac{g\sin\theta}{2}(2n + 1) \qquad \ldots(ii)$$ Dividing equations (i) and (ii), $$\frac{S_n}{S_{n+1}} = \frac{(2n - 1)}{(2n + 1)}$$

Q23.

Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct match from the given choices. Column-I: (A) Root mean square speed of gas molecules (B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas (C) Average kinetic energy of a molecule (D) Total internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas Column-II: (P) $\dfrac{1}{3}nm\bar{v}^{2}$ (Q) $\sqrt{\dfrac{3RT}{M}}$ (R) $\dfrac{5}{2}RT$ (S) $\dfrac{3}{2}k_BT$

  • A. (A)-(Q), (B)-(R), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
  • B. (A)-(Q), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(R) ✓
  • C. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(P), (D)-(S)
  • D. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)

Solution: Root mean square speed of a gas molecule $= \sqrt{\dfrac{3RT}{M}}$ Pressure exerted by an ideal gas $= \dfrac{1}{3}nm\bar{v}^{2}$ Average kinetic energy of a molecule $= \dfrac{3}{2}k_BT$ Total internal energy of a gas is $U = \dfrac{1}{2}nfRT$; here $n = 1$ and $f = 5$ for a diatomic gas, so $U = \dfrac{5}{2}RT$ Hence (A)-(Q), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(R).

Q24.

A radioactive nucleus $^{A}_{Z}X$ undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence $$^{A}_{Z}X \rightarrow {}_{Z-1}B \rightarrow {}_{Z-3}C \rightarrow {}_{Z-2}D$$ where $Z$ is the atomic number of element $X$. The possible decay particles in the sequence are

  • A. $\alpha$, $\beta^{+}$, $\beta^{-}$
  • B. $\beta^{+}$, $\alpha$, $\beta^{-}$ ✓
  • C. $\beta^{-}$, $\alpha$, $\beta^{+}$
  • D. $\alpha$, $\beta^{-}$, $\beta^{+}$

Solution: On $\beta^{+}$ decay the atomic number decreases by 1. On $\beta^{-}$ decay the atomic number increases by 1. On $\alpha$ decay the atomic number decreases by 2. So the sequence runs $$^{A}_{Z}X \xrightarrow{\ \beta^{+}\ \text{decay}\ } {}_{Z-1}B \xrightarrow{\ \alpha\ \text{decay}\ } {}_{Z-3}C \xrightarrow{\ \beta^{-}\ \text{decay}\ } {}_{Z-2}D$$ Hence the correct order of decay is $\beta^{+}$, $\alpha$, $\beta^{-}$.

Q25.

The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 $\Omega$. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

  • A. 0.5 $\Omega$
  • B. 1 $\Omega$
  • C. 4 $\Omega$ ✓
  • D. 0.25 $\Omega$

Solution: All the wires are identical and of the same material so they will have the same value of resistance. Let it be $R$. When these four are connected in parallel, $$R_P = \frac{R}{4} \qquad \left(\frac{1}{R_P} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} + \frac{1}{R_3} + \frac{1}{R_4}\right)$$ Given $R_P = 0.25\ \Omega$: $$\therefore\ 0.25 = \frac{R}{4} \ \Rightarrow\ R = 1\ \Omega$$ Now these four resistances are arranged in series: $$R_S = R + R + R + R = 4R$$ $$\therefore\ R_S = 4 \times 1 = 4\ \Omega$$

Q26.

A convex lens '$A$' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens '$B$' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance '$d$' between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on '$A$' leaves '$B$' as a parallel beam, then the distance '$d$' in cm will be

  • A. 15 ✓
  • B. 50
  • C. 30
  • D. 25

Solution: A parallel beam entering the convex lens converges towards its focus, a distance $f_A$ away. For the beam to leave the concave lens parallel again, that convergence point must coincide with the focus of the concave lens, which lies a distance $f_B$ beyond it. Hence $$d = f_A - f_B = 20 - 5 = 15\ \text{cm}$$

Q27.

A particle is released from height $S$ from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively

  • A. $\dfrac{S}{4}$, $\dfrac{\sqrt{3gS}}{2}$
  • B. $\dfrac{S}{2}$, $\dfrac{\sqrt{3gS}}{2}$
  • C. $\dfrac{S}{4}$, $\sqrt{\dfrac{3gS}{2}}$ ✓
  • D. $\dfrac{S}{4}$, $\dfrac{3gS}{2}$

Solution: Let the required height of the body be $y$. When the body falls from rest through height $(S - y)$, then under constant acceleration $$v^{2} = 0^{2} + 2g(S - y)$$ $$v = \sqrt{2g(S - y)} \qquad \ldots(1)$$ When the body is at height $y$ above ground, the potential energy of a body of mass $m$ is $$U = mgy$$ As per the given condition, kinetic energy $K = 3U$: $$\frac{1}{2}m v^{2} = 3 \times mgy$$ $$\frac{1}{2} \times m \times 2g(S - y) = 3 \times mgy \qquad \text{(using (1))}$$ $$S - y = 3y$$ $$\therefore\ y = \frac{S}{4} \qquad \ldots(2)$$ $$\therefore\ v = \sqrt{2 \times g\left(S - \frac{S}{4}\right)} = \sqrt{\frac{3gS}{2}} \qquad \ldots(3)$$

Q28.

A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

  • A. Towards the right as its potential energy will decrease. ✓
  • B. Towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
  • C. Towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
  • D. Towards the left as its potential energy will increase.

Solution: Potential energy of an electric dipole in an external electric field is $U = -\vec{P} \cdot \vec{E}$. The angle between the electric field and the electric dipole moment is $180^{\circ}$: $$U = -PE\cos\theta = -PE\cos 180^{\circ} = +PE$$ On moving towards the right the electric field strength decreases, therefore the potential energy decreases. The net force on the electric dipole is towards the right and the net torque acting on it is zero. So it will move towards the right.

Q29.

Two charged spherical conductors of radius $R_1$ and $R_2$ are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres ($\sigma_1/\sigma_2$) is

  • A. $\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}$ ✓
  • B. $\sqrt{\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}}$
  • C. $\dfrac{R_1^{2}}{R_2^{2}}$
  • D. $\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}$

Solution: When two conductors are connected by a conducting wire, then the two conductors should have the same potential. So $V_1 = V_2$: $$\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{Q_1}{R_1} = \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\frac{Q_2}{R_2}$$ Multiplying each side by $\dfrac{R}{R}$ to bring in the surface area, $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{Q_1R_1}{4\pi R_1^{2}\varepsilon_0} = \frac{Q_2R_2}{4\pi R_2^{2}\varepsilon_0}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{\sigma_1 R_1}{\varepsilon_0} = \frac{\sigma_2 R_2}{\varepsilon_0}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2} = \frac{R_2}{R_1}$$

Q30.

A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency '$n$', the frequency of its potential energy is

  • A. $2n$ ✓
  • B. $3n$
  • C. $4n$
  • D. $n$

Solution: The equation of displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by $x = A\sin(\omega t + \phi)$. Potential energy of a particle executing SHM is given by $$U = \frac{1}{2}kx^{2} = \frac{1}{2}kA^{2}\sin^{2}(\omega t + \phi)$$ The time period of $x = A\sin(\omega t + \phi)$ is $$T_1 = \frac{2\pi}{\omega} \ \Rightarrow\ \text{frequency } n_1 = \frac{\omega}{2\pi}$$ while the time period of $x^{2} = A^{2}\sin^{2}(\omega t + \phi)$ is $$T_2 = \frac{\pi}{\omega} \ \Rightarrow\ \text{frequency } n_2 = \frac{\omega}{\pi}$$ Hence $n_2 = 2n_1$.

Q31.

The velocity of a small ball of mass $M$ and density $d$, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is $\dfrac{d}{2}$, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be

  • A. $Mg$
  • B. $\dfrac{3}{2}Mg$
  • C. $2Mg$
  • D. $\dfrac{Mg}{2}$ ✓

Solution: Let $F_v$ be the viscous force and $F_B$ be the buoyant force acting on the ball. When the body moves with constant velocity, the acceleration is zero: $$Mg = F_B + F_v$$ $$F_v = Mg - F_B$$ $$= dVg - \frac{d}{2}Vg \qquad (M = dVg,\ V = \text{volume of ball})$$ $$= \frac{d}{2}Vg$$ $$F_v = \frac{M}{2}g$$

Q32.

An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '$\lambda$' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If '$m$' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength $\lambda_d$, then

  • A. $\lambda_d = \left(\dfrac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda^{2}$
  • B. $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$ ✓
  • C. $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2h}{mc}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$
  • D. $\lambda = \left(\dfrac{2m}{hc}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$

Solution: For a surface of negligible work function, the whole photon energy becomes the kinetic energy of the photoelectron: $$\frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{p^{2}}{2m}$$ The de-Broglie wavelength gives $p = \dfrac{h}{\lambda_d}$, so $$\frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{h^{2}}{2m\lambda_d^{2}}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \lambda = \frac{2mc\lambda_d^{2}}{h} = \left(\frac{2mc}{h}\right)\lambda_d^{2}$$

Q33.

For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in $x$-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field ($E$) and magnetic field ($B$) respectively?

  • A. $-\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ -\hat{j} - \hat{k}$ ✓
  • B. $\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ -\hat{j} - \hat{k}$
  • C. $-\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ -\hat{j} + \hat{k}$
  • D. $\hat{j} + \hat{k},\ \hat{j} + \hat{k}$

Solution: The direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is along $\vec{E} \times \vec{B}$. Given that the direction of propagation is along the $x$-axis, testing each option: $$(1)\quad \left(-\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right) \times \left(-\hat{j} - \hat{k}\right) = 2\hat{i}$$ $$(2)\quad \left(\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right) \times \left[-\left(\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right)\right] = 0$$ $$(3)\quad \left(-\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right) \times \left(-\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right) = 0$$ $$(4)\quad \left(\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right) \times \left(\hat{j} + \hat{k}\right) = 0$$ Only option (1) gives a cross product along $+\hat{i}$.

Q34.

An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of $10^{5}$ m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.

  • A. $8\pi \times 10^{-20}$ N
  • B. $4\pi \times 10^{-20}$ N
  • C. $8 \times 10^{-20}$ N ✓
  • D. $4 \times 10^{-20}$ N

Solution: Magnetic field produced due to the current carrying wire at the position of the electron: $$B = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{2I}{r}$$ $$B = \frac{10^{-7} \times 2 \times 5}{20 \times 10^{-2}} = \frac{1}{2} \times 10^{-5}\ \text{(Tesla)}$$ directed upward to the plane of the paper. Now, the force acting on the electron due to this field is $$\vec{F} = q\left(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\right)$$ $$\left|\vec{F}\right| = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 10^{5} \times \frac{1}{2} \times 10^{-5}$$ $$= 0.8 \times 10^{-19}\ \text{N}$$ $$\left|\vec{F}\right| = 8 \times 10^{-20}\ \text{N}$$

Q35.

The electron concentration in an $n$-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a $p$-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

  • A. Current in $p$-type > current in $n$-type
  • B. Current in $n$-type > current in $p$-type. ✓
  • C. No current will flow in $p$-type, current will only flow in $n$-type
  • D. Current in $n$-type = current in $p$-type

Solution: The current through a semiconductor is $$I = neAv_d = neA\mu E$$ $$\frac{I_n}{I_p} = \frac{n_e e A \mu_e E}{n_h e A \mu_h E}$$ Since the concentrations are equal, $$\frac{I_n}{I_p} = \frac{\mu_e}{\mu_h}$$ The mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes, $\mu_e > \mu_h$: $$\Rightarrow\ I_n > I_p$$

Q36.

A particle moving in a circle of radius $R$ with a uniform speed takes a time $T$ to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle '$\theta$' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals $4R$. The angle of projection, $\theta$, is then given by :

  • A. $\theta = \cos^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\pi^{2}R}{gT^{2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
  • B. $\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\pi^{2}R}{gT^{2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
  • C. $\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{2gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$ ✓
  • D. $\theta = \cos^{-1}\left(\dfrac{gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

Solution: To complete a circular path of radius $R$, the time period is $T$, so the speed of the particle is $$U = \frac{2\pi R}{T} \qquad \ldots(1)$$ Now the particle is projected with the same speed at angle $\theta$ to the horizontal, so the maximum height is $$H = \frac{U^{2}\sin^{2}\theta}{2g}$$ Given $H = 4R$: $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{U^{2}\sin^{2}\theta}{2g} = 4R$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \sin^{2}\theta = \frac{8gR}{U^{2}} \qquad \ldots(2)$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \sin^{2}\theta = \frac{8gRT^{2}}{4\pi^{2}R^{2}} = \frac{2gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R} \qquad \text{(using equation 1)}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2gT^{2}}{\pi^{2}R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$$

Q37.

Three resistors having resistances $r_1$, $r_2$ and $r_3$ are connected as shown in the given circuit — $r_1$ carries the whole current $i_1$ from $A$ and then splits into $r_2$ carrying $i_2$ and $r_3$ carrying $i_3$ in parallel, rejoining at $B$. The ratio $\dfrac{i_3}{i_1}$ of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is

  • A. $\dfrac{r_2}{r_2 + r_3}$ ✓
  • B. $\dfrac{r_1}{r_1 + r_2}$
  • C. $\dfrac{r_2}{r_1 + r_3}$
  • D. $\dfrac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}$

Solution: In the parallel combination of resistances $r_2$ and $r_3$, the potential difference will be equal across both resistances. So, $i_2r_2 = i_3r_3$: $$\Rightarrow\ i_2 = \frac{i_3r_3}{r_2} \qquad \ldots(1)$$ As per Kirchhoff's first law, $$\Rightarrow\ i_1 = i_2 + i_3$$ $$\Rightarrow\ i_1 = \left(\frac{r_3}{r_2} + 1\right)i_3 \qquad \text{(from equation 1)}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{i_3}{i_1} = \frac{r_2}{r_2 + r_3}$$

Q38.

A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of

  • A. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
  • B. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image
  • C. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image ✓
  • D. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

Solution: Using the lens formula for the first refraction from the convex lens, $$\frac{1}{v_1} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}$$ with $u = -60$ cm and $f = 30$ cm: $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{1}{v_1} + \frac{1}{60} = \frac{1}{30} \ \Rightarrow\ v_1 = 60\ \text{cm}$$ This first image $I_1$ lies 60 cm beyond the lens, i.e. 20 cm behind the plane mirror. The plane mirror will produce an image at a distance 20 cm to the left of it. For the second refraction from the convex lens, $u = -20$ cm and $f = 30$ cm: $$\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f} \ \Rightarrow\ \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{1}{30}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{30} - \frac{1}{20} \ \Rightarrow\ v = -60\ \text{cm}$$ Thus the final image is virtual and at a distance $60 - 40 = 20$ cm from the plane mirror.

Q39.

A uniform conducting wire of length $12a$ and resistance '$R$' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of, (i) an equilateral triangle of side '$a$'. (ii) a square of side '$a$'. The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are

  • A. $3Ia^{2}$ and $Ia^{2}$
  • B. $3Ia^{2}$ and $4Ia^{2}$
  • C. $4Ia^{2}$ and $3Ia^{2}$
  • D. $\sqrt{3}Ia^{2}$ and $3Ia^{2}$ ✓

Solution: The current in the loop will be $\dfrac{V}{R} = I$, which is the same for both loops. Now the magnetic moment of the triangular loop $= NIA$, where the wire of length $12a$ makes $\dfrac{12a}{3a}$ turns: $$M_1 = \left(\frac{12a}{3a}\right) \cdot I \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^{2} = \sqrt{3}Ia^{2}$$ And the magnetic moment of the square loop $= N'IA'$, where the wire makes $\dfrac{12a}{4a}$ turns: $$M_2 = \left(\frac{12a}{4a}\right) \cdot I \cdot a^{2} = 3Ia^{2}$$

Q40.

For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals $A$, $B$ and $C$. What would be the output at the terminal $y$?

  • A. A train of narrow spikes at 0 V
  • B. A waveform that goes high between $t_1$ and $t_3$ and again between $t_4$ and $t_6$
  • C. A constant 5 V level throughout ✓
  • D. A waveform that starts high, drops between $t_2$ and $t_4$, and rises again

Solution: The output of the combination of logic gates is given as $$y = A \cdot B + \overline{B \cdot C}$$ Working through each time interval with the printed input waveforms: $0$-$t_1$: $A$=0, $B$=0, $C$=1, so $AB$=0, $\overline{B \cdot C}$=1, $y$=1 $t_1$-$t_2$: $A$=1, $B$=0, $C$=1, so $AB$=0, $\overline{B \cdot C}$=1, $y$=1 $t_2$-$t_3$: $A$=0, $B$=1, $C$=0, so $AB$=0, $\overline{B \cdot C}$=1, $y$=1 $t_3$-$t_4$: $A$=1, $B$=1, $C$=0, so $AB$=1, $\overline{B \cdot C}$=1, $y$=1 $t_4$-$t_5$: $A$=0, $B$=0, $C$=1, so $y$=1 $t_5$-$t_6$: $A$=1, $B$=0, $C$=1, so $y$=1 $t_6$-$t_7$: $A$=0, $B$=0, $C$=1, so $y$=1 So the output $y$ is high (1) throughout, that is $v_0 = 5$ V.

Q41.

A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is ($g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$) nearly

  • A. 4.2 kg m/s ✓
  • B. 2.1 kg m/s
  • C. 1.4 kg m/s
  • D. 0 kg m/s

Solution: Given, mass of ball $= 0.15$ kg and height from which the ball is dropped $= 10$ m. Impulse, $\vec{I}$ = change in linear momentum $= \Delta\vec{P} = \vec{P}_f - \vec{P}_i$. Velocity of ball at ground, $$v = \sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 10} = 10\sqrt{2}\ \text{m/s}$$ $$\vec{I} = 0.15 \times 10\sqrt{2}\left(-\hat{j}\right) - 0.15 \times 10\sqrt{2}\left(\hat{j}\right)$$ $$\vec{I} = 2 \times 0.15 \times 10\sqrt{2}\left(-\hat{j}\right) = 4.2\left(-\hat{j}\right)$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \text{magnitude of impulse} = 4.2\ \text{kg m/s}$$

Q42.

A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

  • A. 0.4 A
  • B. 2 A
  • C. 4 A
  • D. 0.2 A ✓

Solution: In an ideal transformer, input power = output power: $$\Rightarrow\ V_P I_P = V_S I_S = \text{Given power}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ 220 \times I_P = 44$$ $$\Rightarrow\ I_P = 0.2\ \text{A}$$

Q43.

A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 $\mu$F capacitor and 40 $\Omega$ resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be

  • A. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
  • B. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s ✓
  • C. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
  • D. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s

Solution: The resonance frequency of a series LCR circuit is given as $$\omega_0 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{5 \times 80 \times 10^{-6}}} = 50\ \text{rad/s}$$ Now the half power frequencies are given as $$\omega = \omega_0 \pm \frac{R}{2L}$$ i.e. $$\omega_L = 50 - \frac{40}{2 \times 5} = 46\ \text{rad/s}$$ $$\omega_H = 50 + \frac{40}{2 \times 5} = 54\ \text{rad/s}$$

Q44.

A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass '$m$' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of '$m$' such that the rod is in equilibrium. ($g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$)

  • A. $\dfrac{1}{3}$ kg
  • B. $\dfrac{1}{6}$ kg
  • C. $\dfrac{1}{12}$ kg ✓
  • D. $\dfrac{1}{2}$ kg

Solution: The rod is uniform, so its whole weight acts at its centre, the 100 cm mark. Taking torques about the wedge at the 40 cm mark, the 2 kg mass sits 20 cm to its left while the rod's weight and the mass $m$ sit 60 cm and 120 cm to its right. For equilibrium the anticlockwise torque equals the clockwise torque: $$2 \times 0.20 = 0.5 \times 0.60 + m \times 1.20$$ $$0.4 = 0.3 + 1.2\,m$$ $$1.2\,m = 0.1$$ $$m = \frac{1}{12}\ \text{kg}$$

Q45.

A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s$^{2}$. At $t = 4$ s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at $t = 6$ s? (Take $g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$)

  • A. 20 m/s, 0
  • B. $20\sqrt{2}$ m/s, 0
  • C. $20\sqrt{2}$ m/s, 10 m/s$^{2}$ ✓
  • D. 20 m/s, 5 m/s$^{2}$

Solution: Initial velocity of car $= 0$, acceleration of car $= 5$ m/s$^{2}$. Velocity of car at $t = 4$ s: $v = u + at$ $$\Rightarrow\ v = 0 + 5 \times 4 = 20\ \text{ms}^{-1}$$ At $t = 4$ s, a ball is dropped out of a window, so the velocity of the ball at this instant is 20 ms$^{-1}$ along the horizontal. After 2 seconds of motion: Horizontal velocity of ball $= 20$ ms$^{-1}$ (since $a_x = 0$) Vertical velocity of ball, $v_y = u_y + a_y t = 0 + 10 \times 2 = 20$ ms$^{-1}$ (since $a_y = g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$) So the magnitude of velocity of the ball is $$v = \sqrt{v_x^{2} + v_y^{2}} = 20\sqrt{2}\ \text{m/s}$$ Acceleration of the ball at $t = 6$ s is $g = 10$ m/s$^{2}$, as the ball is under free fall.

Q46.

Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

  • A. 1320 V
  • B. 1520 V
  • C. 1980 V ✓
  • D. 660 V

Solution: Electric potential due to a charged sphere $= \dfrac{kQ}{R}$, where $k = 9 \times 10^{9}$ N m$^{2}$/C$^{2}$, $Q$ is the charge on the sphere and $R$ its radius. Let the charge and radius of the smaller drop be $q$ and $r$ respectively. For the smaller drop, $$V = \frac{kq}{r} = 220\ \text{V}$$ Let $R$ be the radius of the bigger drop. As the volume remains the same, $$\left(\frac{4}{3}\pi r^{3}\right) \times 27 = \frac{4}{3}\pi R^{3}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ R = \sqrt[3]{27}\,r = 3r$$ Now, using charge conservation, $Q = 27q$: $$V_{\text{big drop}} = \frac{kQ}{R} = \frac{k(27q)}{3r} = 9\left(\frac{kq}{r}\right)$$ $$= 9 \times 220 = 1980\ \text{V}$$

Q47.

Two conducting circular loops of radii $R_1$ and $R_2$ are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If $R_1 \gg R_2$, the mutual inductance $M$ between them will be directly proportional to

  • A. $\dfrac{R_2}{R_1}$
  • B. $\dfrac{R_1^{2}}{R_2}$
  • C. $\dfrac{R_2^{2}}{R_1}$ ✓
  • D. $\dfrac{R_1}{R_2}$

Solution: Two concentric coils are of radius $R_1$ and $R_2$. Let the current in the outer loop be $i$. Magnetic field at the centre $$B = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R_1}$$ Since $R_1 \gg R_2$, this field is effectively uniform over the inner coil, so the magnetic flux through the inner coil is $$\phi = B \times \pi R_2^{2} = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R_1} \times \pi R_2^{2} = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2} \times \frac{\pi R_2^{2}}{R_1}$$ As per definition, $\phi = Mi$: $$\Rightarrow\ M = \left(\frac{\mu_0\pi}{2}\right)\frac{R_2^{2}}{R_1}$$ $$\therefore\ M \propto \frac{R_2^{2}}{R_1}$$

Q48.

A particle of mass '$m$' is projected with a velocity $v = kV_e$ ($k < 1$) from the surface of the earth. ($V_e$ = escape velocity) The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is

  • A. $R\left(\dfrac{k}{1 + k}\right)^{2}$
  • B. $\dfrac{R^{2}k}{1 + k}$
  • C. $\dfrac{Rk^{2}}{1 - k^{2}}$ ✓
  • D. $R\left(\dfrac{k}{1 - k}\right)^{2}$

Solution: Given $v = kV_e$ where $k < 1$, thus $v < V_e$. From conservation of mechanical energy, $$\frac{1}{2}mv^{2} - \frac{GmM}{R} = -\frac{GmM}{(R + h)}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{v^{2}}{2} = \frac{GM}{R} - \frac{GM}{(R + h)} = \frac{h}{R(R + h)}GM$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{1}{2}k^{2}V_e^{2} = \frac{GMh}{R(R + h)}$$ We know $V_e = \sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{R}}$: $$\Rightarrow\ \frac{1}{2}k^{2}\left(\frac{2GM}{R}\right) = \frac{GMh}{R(R + h)}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ k^{2}(R + h) = h$$ $$\Rightarrow\ h\left(1 - k^{2}\right) = k^{2}R$$ $$\Rightarrow\ h = \frac{Rk^{2}}{1 - k^{2}}$$

Q49.

In the product $$\vec{F} = q\left(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\right) = q\vec{v} \times \left(B\hat{i} + B\hat{j} + B_0\hat{k}\right)$$ For $q = 1$ and $\vec{v} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}$ and $\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} - 20\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}$ What will be the complete expression for $\vec{B}$ ?

  • A. $-6\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$ ✓
  • B. $8\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}$
  • C. $6\hat{i} + 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$
  • D. $-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}$

Solution: Given $q = 1$, $\vec{v} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}$ and $\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} - 20\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}$. Expanding the cross product, $$\begin{vmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k} \\ 2 & 4 & 6 \\ B & B & B_0 \end{vmatrix}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ \hat{i}(4B_0 - 6B) - \hat{j}(2B_0 - 6B) + \hat{k}(2B - 4B)$$ Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S, $$4B_0 - 6B = 4 \ \Rightarrow\ 2B_0 - 3B = 2 \qquad \ldots(1)$$ $$-(2B_0 - 6B) = -20 \ \Rightarrow\ B_0 - 3B = 10 \qquad \ldots(2)$$ $$2B - 4B = 12 \ \Rightarrow\ B = -6 \qquad \ldots(3)$$ From (2) and (3), $B = -6$ and $B_0 = -8$. Hence, $\vec{B} = -6\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$.

Q50.

From a circular ring of mass '$M$' and radius '$R$' an arc corresponding to a 90$^{\circ}$ sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is '$K$' times '$MR^{2}$'. Then the value of '$K$' is

  • A. $\dfrac{7}{8}$
  • B. $\dfrac{1}{4}$
  • C. $\dfrac{1}{8}$
  • D. $\dfrac{3}{4}$ ✓

Solution: Given, mass of ring $= M$, radius of ring $= R$. Now a 90$^{\circ}$ arc is removed from the circular ring, so the mass removed $= \dfrac{M}{4}$. Mass of remaining portion $= \dfrac{3M}{4}$. Moment of inertia of the remaining part $$= \int dm\,r^{2}$$ $$\Rightarrow\ I = R^{2}\int dm \qquad (\because r = R)$$ $$\Rightarrow\ I = \frac{3MR^{2}}{4}$$ So the value of $K$ is $\dfrac{3}{4}$.

Q51.

Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :

  • A. Three horizontal lines drawn together and labelled (200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
  • B. Three straight lines through the origin, the 200 K line the steepest
  • C. Three rectangular hyperbolas, the 600 K curve furthest from the origin and the 200 K curve nearest ✓
  • D. Three rectangular hyperbolas, the 200 K curve furthest from the origin and the 600 K curve nearest

Solution: According to Boyle's law, $$P \propto \frac{1}{V} \ \Rightarrow\ P = \frac{k}{V} \ \Rightarrow\ PV = k$$ where $k$ is a proportionality constant and equal to $nRT$. $$\therefore\ \text{Graph between } P \text{ vs. } V \text{ should be a rectangular hyperbola, and the product } PV \text{ increases with increase in temperature.}$$ So the isotherm for the highest temperature, 600 K, lies furthest from the origin.

Q52.

Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF $\ll$ HCl $\ll$ HBr $\ll$ HI. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is correct but statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • D. Both statement I and Statement II are true ✓

Solution: In the modern periodic table, moving down the group as the size of the halogen atom increases, the H–X bond length also increases; as a result the bond enthalpy decreases. Hence, the acidic strength also increases. So, the correct order of acidic strength is $$\text{HI} > \text{HBr} > \text{HCl} > \text{HF}$$ Both statements are therefore true, and the second correctly explains the first.

Q53.

Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?

  • A. Alpha ($\alpha$)
  • B. Gamma ($\gamma$)
  • C. Neutron ($n$)
  • D. Beta ($\beta^{-}$) ✓

Solution: Hydrogen has three isotopes: protium $^{1}_{1}$H, deuterium $^{2}_{1}$H or D, and tritium $^{3}_{1}$H or T. Of these isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low energy $\beta^{-}$ particles ($t_{1/2}$ = 12.33 years).

Q54.

The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :

  • A. Upto 2200 K ✓
  • B. Upto 1900 K
  • C. Upto 5000 K
  • D. Upto 1200 K

Solution: The maximum temperature that can be achieved in a blast furnace is up to 2200 K. (As per NCERT text, 2170 K maximum temperature is given in the figure of the blast furnace.)

Q55.

Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

  • A. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points ✓
  • B. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
  • C. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy
  • D. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water

Solution: Noble gases have weak dispersion forces, hence they have LOW melting and boiling points. So the statement that noble gases have very high melting and boiling points is incorrect. The other three statements are correct.

Q56.

Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

  • A. CH$_3$CH$_2$–NH–CH$_3$ (a secondary amine)
  • B. CH$_3$CH$_2$–NH$_2$ (a primary amine) ✓
  • C. CH$_3$CH$_2$–N(CH$_3$)–CH$_2$CH$_3$ (a tertiary amine)
  • D. CH$_3$CH$_2$–NO$_2$ (a nitroalkane)

Solution: Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C$_6$H$_5$SO$_2$Cl) is also known as Hinsberg's reagent. The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent with a primary amine (CH$_3$CH$_2$NH$_2$) yields N-ethylbenzene sulphonamide, which still carries a hydrogen on nitrogen. That hydrogen is acidic because of the strongly electron-withdrawing sulphonyl group, so the solid dissolves in alkali. The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent with a secondary amine (C$_2$H$_5$NHCH$_3$) gives N-ethyl-N-methyl benzene sulphonamide, which is insoluble in alkali due to the absence of an H-atom on nitrogen. A 3$^{\circ}$ amine does not react with Hinsberg's reagent at all.

Q57.

Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :

  • A. Strontium chloride
  • B. Magnesium chloride
  • C. Beryllium chloride ✓
  • D. Calcium chloride

Solution: Except for beryllium chloride, all the other chlorides of alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature. Due to the small size of Be, beryllium chloride is essentially covalent and soluble in organic solvents.

Q58.

What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction? Acetone treated with (i) C$_2$H$_5$MgBr, dry ether; (ii) H$_2$O, H$^{+}$ gives the product.

  • A. pentan-2-ol
  • B. pentan-3-ol
  • C. 2-methylbutan-2-ol ✓
  • D. 2-methylpropan-2-ol

Solution: The ethyl carbanion of the Grignard reagent attacks the carbonyl carbon of acetone, giving the bromomagnesium alkoxide: $$\text{CH}_3\text{—CO—CH}_3 \xrightarrow[\text{Dry ether}]{\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{MgBr}} \text{CH}_3\text{—C(OMgBr)(C}_2\text{H}_5\text{)—CH}_3$$ On hydrolysis with H$_2$O/H$^{+}$ this becomes the tertiary alcohol: $$\text{CH}_3\text{—C(OH)(CH}_3\text{)—CH}_2\text{—CH}_3$$ The product is 2-methylbutan-2-ol.

Q59.

BF$_3$ is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :

  • A. $sp^{3}$ and 6
  • B. $sp^{2}$ and 6 ✓
  • C. $sp^{2}$ and 8
  • D. $sp^{3}$ and 4

Solution: In BF$_3$, boron forms three B–F bonds and has no lone pair. Number of electrons around the boron atom is 6. Hybridization of B is $sp^{2}$. Shape is trigonal planar.

Q60.

The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :

  • A. Linear in both
  • B. Dimer and Linear, respectively
  • C. Chain in both
  • D. Chain and dimer, respectively ✓

Solution: Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid state, with chlorine bridges linking the beryllium atoms. In the vapour phase, beryllium chloride tends to form a chloro-bridged dimer, Be$_2$Cl$_4$, which dissociates into the linear monomer at high temperature. So the answer is chain and dimer respectively.

Q61.

The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :

  • A. Vitamin B$_6$
  • B. Vitamin B$_1$
  • C. Vitamin B$_2$
  • D. Vitamin B$_{12}$ ✓

Solution: Deficiency of vitamin B$_{12}$ causes pernicious anaemia, which is RBC deficiency in haemoglobin. Deficiency of vitamin B$_2$ (Riboflavin) causes cheilosis, digestive disorders and burning sensation of the skin. Deficiency of vitamin B$_6$ (Pyridoxine) causes convulsions. Deficiency of vitamin B$_1$ (Thiamine) causes Beri-Beri (loss of appetite and retarded growth).

Q62.

The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :

  • A. 5
  • B. 2
  • C. 3 ✓
  • D. 7

Solution: In the 14 types of Bravais lattices, the body centred unit cell is present in the cubic, tetragonal and orthorhombic crystal systems. Hence, body centred possible variation is present in three crystal systems.

Q63.

The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH$_3$COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$ respectively. The molar conductance of CH$_3$COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.

  • A. 390.71 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$ ✓
  • B. 698.28 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
  • C. 540.48 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$
  • D. 201.28 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$

Solution: According to Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions, $$\Lambda^{\circ}_m(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}) = \Lambda^{\circ}_m(\text{CH}_3\text{COONa}) + \Lambda^{\circ}_m(\text{HCl}) - \Lambda^{\circ}_m(\text{NaCl})$$ $$= 91.0 + 426.16 - 126.45$$ $$= 390.71\ \text{S cm}^{2}\ \text{mol}^{-1}$$

Q64.

Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?

  • A. Nylon-66
  • B. Novolac
  • C. Dacron
  • D. Teflon ✓

Solution: Dacron, Nylon-66 and Novolac are prepared by condensation polymerisation. Teflon is an addition polymer. The monomer of teflon is tetrafluoroethene: $$n\,\text{CF}_2\text{=CF}_2 \xrightarrow[\text{High pressure}]{\text{Catalyst}} \left[\text{CF}_2\text{—CF}_2\right]_n$$

Q65.

The p$K_b$ of dimethylamine and p$K_a$ of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at $T$ (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :

  • A. 5.50
  • B. 7.75 ✓
  • C. 6.25
  • D. 8.50

Solution: Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base, whose pH can be calculated as $$\text{pH} = 7 + \frac{1}{2}\left(\text{p}K_a - \text{p}K_b\right)$$ $$= 7 + \frac{1}{2}(4.77 - 3.27)$$ $$= 7.75$$

Q66.

A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light $c = 3.0 \times 10^{8}$ ms$^{-1}$]

  • A. 219.2 m
  • B. 2192 m
  • C. 21.92 cm
  • D. 219.3 m ✓

Solution: Energy of electromagnetic radiation $$E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} = h\nu$$ So, $$\frac{c}{\lambda} = \nu \ \Rightarrow\ \lambda = \frac{c}{\nu}$$ $$\lambda = \frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{1368 \times 10^{3}} = 219.3\ \text{m}$$

Q67.

Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :

  • A. 6, 12
  • B. 2, 1
  • C. 12, 6 ✓
  • D. 8, 4

Solution: The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids formed by $N$ closed packed atoms are $N$ and $2N$ respectively. Each hexagonal unit cell contains 6 atoms, therefore the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids are 12 and 6 respectively.

Q68.

The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C$_6$H$_{12}$O$_6$) in 250 ml of water ($P_1$), 10 g of urea (CH$_4$N$_2$O) in 250 ml of water ($P_2$) and 10 g of sucrose (C$_{12}$H$_{22}$O$_{11}$) in 250 ml of water ($P_3$). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :

  • A. $P_1 > P_2 > P_3$
  • B. $P_2 > P_3 > P_1$
  • C. $P_3 > P_1 > P_2$
  • D. $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$ ✓

Solution: Osmotic pressure $\pi = iCRT$, where $C$ is the molar concentration of the solution. With an increase in molar concentration of the solution, osmotic pressure increases. Since the weight of all solutes and the solution volume are equal, the higher the molar mass of solute, the smaller will be the molar concentration and the smaller will be the osmotic pressure. Order of molar mass of solute decreases as Sucrose > Glucose > Urea So, the correct order of osmotic pressure of solution is $P_3 < P_1 < P_2$, that is $P_2 > P_1 > P_3$.

Q69.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) PCl$_5$ (b) SF$_6$ (c) BrF$_5$ (d) BF$_3$ List-II: (i) Square pyramidal (ii) Trigonal planar (iii) Octahedral (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓

Solution: PCl$_5$ is $sp^{3}d$ hybridised and trigonal bipyramidal in shape. SF$_6$ is $sp^{3}d^{2}$ hybridised and octahedral in shape. BrF$_5$ is $sp^{3}d^{2}$ hybridised with one lone pair, and square pyramidal in shape. BF$_3$ is $sp^{2}$ hybridised and trigonal planar in shape. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Q70.

Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :

  • A. Unidentate ligand
  • B. Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
  • C. Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
  • D. Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms ✓

Solution: Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is a hexadentate ligand having four donor oxygen atoms, from the four carboxylate groups, and two donor nitrogen atoms from the ethylenediamine backbone. All six donor atoms can bind the same metal centre, which is what makes EDTA such a strong chelating agent.

Q71.

The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is :

  • A. Glucose solution
  • B. Starch solution ✓
  • C. Urea solution
  • D. NaCl solution

Solution: Tyndall effect is exhibited by colloidal solutions only. Among the given options, urea, NaCl and glucose solutions are true solutions, so they cannot show the Tyndall effect. Starch solution is a colloidal solution, therefore it can show the Tyndall effect.

Q72.

The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?

  • A. Hund's Rule
  • B. Hofmann Rule
  • C. Huckel's Rule
  • D. Saytzeff's Rule ✓

Solution: The major product formed in the dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-bromopentane is pent-2-ene, because according to Saytzeff's rule, in dehydrohalogenation reactions the preferred product is that alkene which has the greater number of alkyl group(s) attached to the doubly bonded carbon atoms. $$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CHBrCH}_3 \xrightarrow{\ \text{OH}^{-}\ } \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH=CHCH}_3\ (81\%) + \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH=CH}_2\ (19\%)$$

Q73.

Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :

  • A. 180$^{\circ}$
  • B. 60$^{\circ}$
  • C. 0$^{\circ}$ ✓
  • D. 120$^{\circ}$

Solution: Ethane has two conformers: (i) Eclipsed and (ii) Staggered. The eclipsed conformer is least stable while the staggered conformer is most stable. In the eclipsed conformer the dihedral angle is 0$^{\circ}$, while in the staggered conformer it is 60$^{\circ}$.

Q74.

The major product of the following chemical reaction is : 3-Methylbut-1-ene, (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH=CH$_2$, treated with HBr in the presence of (C$_6$H$_5$CO)$_2$O$_2$

  • A. (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–O–COC$_6$H$_5$
  • B. (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH(Br)–CH$_3$
  • C. (CH$_3$)$_2$CBr–CH$_2$–CH$_3$
  • D. (CH$_3$)$_2$CH–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–Br ✓

Solution: In the presence of benzoyl peroxide, HBr adds across the double bond in the anti-Markovnikov sense — the peroxide effect. $$(\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH—CH=CH}_2 + \text{HBr} \xrightarrow{(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CO})_2\text{O}_2} (\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH—CH}_2\text{—CH}_2\text{Br}$$ Mechanism: the peroxide effect proceeds via a free radical chain mechanism. The peroxide undergoes homolysis to give two benzoyloxy radicals, which lose CO$_2$ to give phenyl radicals; these abstract H from HBr to generate bromine radicals, which then add to the terminal carbon to give the more stable secondary radical.

Q75.

The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

  • A. Structure (1)
  • B. Structure (2)
  • C. Structure (3)
  • D. Structure (4) ✓

Solution: Numbering the ten-carbon main chain so that the double bond gets the lowest locant, the double bond must lie between C-4 and C-5, and methyl branches must sit on C-2 and C-6. Only option (4) has the ten-carbon chain with the C=C between the fourth and fifth carbons and methyl groups on the second and sixth carbons. That structure is 2,6-dimethyldec-4-ene.

Q76.

Zr ($Z$ = 40) and Hf ($Z$ = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

  • A. Diagonal relationship
  • B. Lanthanoid contraction ✓
  • C. Having similar chemical properties
  • D. Belonging to same group

Solution: The cumulative effect of the contraction of the lanthanoid series, known as lanthanoid contraction, causes the radii of the members of the third transition series to be very similar to those of the corresponding members of the second series. The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and Hf (159 pm) is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.

Q77.

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false ✓
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Solution: Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of NON-narcotic analgesics, so Statement I is false. Morphine and heroin are NARCOTIC analgesics, so Statement II is false. Therefore both statement I and statement II are false.

Q78.

Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

  • A. Chromatography
  • B. Distillation ✓
  • C. Zone refining
  • D. Electrolysis

Solution: The distillation method is generally used for the purification of metals having low boiling point such as Hg, Zn etc. Mercury is the metal that is liquid at room temperature, and it is purified by distillation.

Q79.

The compound which shows metamerism is :

  • A. C$_3$H$_8$O
  • B. C$_3$H$_6$O
  • C. C$_4$H$_{10}$O ✓
  • D. C$_5$H$_{12}$

Solution: Compounds with formula C$_4$H$_{10}$O can be ethers which may exhibit metamerism. For example CH$_3$–CH$_2$–O–CH$_2$–CH$_3$, CH$_3$–O–CH(CH$_3$)–CH$_3$ and CH$_3$–O–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–CH$_3$ are metamers, as the structures of the alkyl chains are different around the same functional group.

Q80.

Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.

  • A. Cr$_2$O$_3$ + 2Al $\xrightarrow{\Delta}$ Al$_2$O$_3$ + 2Cr ✓
  • B. Fe + 2HCl $\rightarrow$ FeCl$_2$ + H$_2\uparrow$
  • C. 2Pb(NO$_3$)$_2$ $\rightarrow$ 2PbO + 4NO$_2$ + O$_2\uparrow$
  • D. 2KClO$_3$ $\xrightarrow{\Delta}$ 2KCl + 3O$_2$

Solution: Both reactions (3) and (4) are examples of decomposition reactions. Reactions (1) and (2) are both examples of displacement reactions, but in reaction (2) hydrogen, a non-metal, is displaced. Reaction (1) is the one in which one metal displaces another from its compound, so it is the metal displacement reaction.

Q81.

The incorrect statement among the following is :

  • A. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state ✓
  • B. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity
  • C. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
  • D. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction

Solution: Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are COLOURED both in the solid state and in aqueous solutions, so the first statement is incorrect. The other three are correct: actinoids are highly reactive metals especially when finely divided; actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction, resulting from poor shielding by 5$f$ electrons; and lanthanoids have typical metallic structure and are good conductors of heat and electricity.

Q82.

Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between C$_P$ and C$_V$ for one mole of ideal gas?

  • A. C$_P$ – C$_V$ = R ✓
  • B. C$_P$ = RC$_V$
  • C. C$_V$ = RC$_P$
  • D. C$_P$ + C$_V$ = R

Solution: At constant volume, $q_V = C_V\Delta T = \Delta U$. At constant pressure, $q_P = C_P\Delta T = \Delta H$. For a mole of an ideal gas, $$\Delta H = \Delta U + \Delta(PV) = \Delta U + \Delta(RT) = \Delta U + R\Delta T$$ On putting the values of $\Delta H$ and $\Delta U$, we have $$C_P\Delta T = C_V\Delta T + R\Delta T$$ $$C_P = C_V + R$$ $$C_P - C_V = R$$

Q83.

The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond is :

  • A. CH$_3$–F > CH$_3$–Cl > CH$_3$–Br > CH$_3$–I ✓
  • B. CH$_3$–F < CH$_3$–Cl > CH$_3$–Br > CH$_3$–I
  • C. CH$_3$–Cl > CH$_3$–F > CH$_3$–Br > CH$_3$–I
  • D. CH$_3$–F < CH$_3$–Cl < CH$_3$–Br < CH$_3$–I

Solution: The size of the halogen atom increases from F to I, hence the bond length from C–F to C–I increases. $$\therefore\ \text{Bond enthalpy from CH}_3\text{–F to CH}_3\text{–I decreases}$$ The bond dissociation enthalpies in kJ mol$^{-1}$ are CH$_3$—F 452, CH$_3$—Cl 351, CH$_3$—Br 293 and CH$_3$—I 234.

Q84.

An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

  • A. CH$_2$
  • B. CH$_3$ ✓
  • C. CH$_4$
  • D. CH

Solution: Carbon is 78% and hydrogen is the remaining 22%. For carbon: number of moles $= \dfrac{78}{12} = 6.5$, and the mole ratio $= \dfrac{6.5}{6.5} = 1$. For hydrogen: number of moles $= \dfrac{22}{1} = 22$, and the mole ratio $= \dfrac{22}{6.5} = 3.38 \simeq 3$. Based on the above calculation, the possible empirical formula is CH$_3$.

Q85.

For a reaction A $\rightarrow$ B, enthalpy of reaction is $-4.2$ kJ mol$^{-1}$ and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol$^{-1}$. The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.

  • A. Profile (1) ✓
  • B. Profile (2)
  • C. Profile (3)
  • D. Profile (4)

Solution: $$\Delta H_{\text{rxn}} = (E_a)_f - (E_a)_b$$ $$-4.2 = (E_a)_f - (E_a)_b$$ $$-4.2 = 9.6 - (E_a)_b$$ $$(E_a)_b = 9.6 + 4.2 = 13.8\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$$ Since the reaction is exothermic, B must sit below A on the energy axis. Also $(E_a)_f < (E_a)_b$, which fixes the shape of the barrier, so the answer is option (1).

Q86.

The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option. $\Lambda^{\circ}_{\text{H}^{+}} = 350$ S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$ $\Lambda^{\circ}_{\text{CH}_3\text{COO}^{-}} = 50$ S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$

  • A. $2.50 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$
  • B. $1.75 \times 10^{-5}$ mol L$^{-1}$ ✓
  • C. $2.50 \times 10^{-5}$ mol L$^{-1}$
  • D. $1.75 \times 10^{-4}$ mol L$^{-1}$

Solution: $\Lambda_m = 20$ S cm$^{2}$ mol$^{-1}$ $$\Lambda^{\circ}_{m,\ \text{CH}_3\text{COOH}} = \Lambda^{\circ}_{\text{CH}_3\text{COO}^{-}} + \Lambda^{\circ}_{m,\ \text{H}^{+}}$$ $$= 50 + 350 = 400\ \text{S cm}^{2}\ \text{mol}^{-1}$$ $$\alpha = \frac{\Lambda_m}{\Lambda^{\circ}_m} = \frac{20}{400} = \frac{1}{20}$$ $$K_a = \frac{C\alpha^{2}}{1 - \alpha} \simeq C\alpha^{2} = 7 \times 10^{-3} \times \left(\frac{1}{20}\right)^{2}$$ $$= 7 \times 10^{-3} \times \frac{1}{4} \times 10^{-2}$$ $$= 1.75 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{mol L}^{-1}$$

Q87.

The product formed in the following chemical reaction is: A cyclohexanone ring bearing a CH$_2$COOCH$_3$ group on one neighbouring carbon and a CH$_3$ on the other is treated with NaBH$_4$ in C$_2$H$_5$OH.

  • A. The ring ketone retained, with the ester side chain reduced to CH$_2$CH$_2$OH
  • B. The ring reduced to an alcohol and the ester side chain reduced to CH$_2$CH(OH)CH$_3$
  • C. The ring reduced to an alcohol (OH), with the CH$_2$COOCH$_3$ ester side chain untouched ✓
  • D. The ring reduced to an alcohol and the side chain converted to CH$_2$CH(OH)OCH$_3$

Solution: NaBH$_4$ is a reducing agent. It reduces the carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones into alcohols, but it does not reduce esters. So the ring ketone becomes a secondary alcohol while the methyl ester side chain is left intact. The product therefore carries an OH on the ring and the unchanged CH$_2$COOCH$_3$ group.

Q88.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) 2SO$_2$(g) + O$_2$(g) $\rightarrow$ 2SO$_3$(g) (b) HOCl(g) $\xrightarrow{h\nu}$ $\dot{\text{O}}$H + $\dot{\text{C}}$l (c) CaCO$_3$ + H$_2$SO$_4$ $\rightarrow$ CaSO$_4$ + H$_2$O + CO$_2$ (d) NO$_2$(g) $\xrightarrow{h\nu}$ NO(g) + O(g) List-II: (i) Acid rain (ii) Smog (iii) Ozone depletion (iv) Tropospheric pollution Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Solution: Tropospheric pollution: in the presence of pollutant, SO$_2$ converts into SO$_3$. $$2\text{SO}_2 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{SO}_3$$ In spring season, sunlight breaks HOCl and Cl$_2$ to give chlorine radicals, and these chlorine radicals deplete the ozone layer. High level of sulphur causes acid rain, which reacts with marble and causes discolouring and disfiguring: $$\text{CaCO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{CaSO}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{CO}_2$$ A chain reaction occurs from interaction of NO with sunlight, in which NO is converted to NO$_2$, which absorbs energy from sunlight and breaks into NO and O, causing photochemical smog. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Q89.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Benzene with CO, HCl over anhyd. AlCl$_3$/CuCl (b) R—CO—CH$_3$ + NaOX (c) R—CH$_2$—OH + R$'$COOH with conc. H$_2$SO$_4$ (d) R—CH$_2$COOH with (i) X$_2$/Red P, (ii) H$_2$O List-II: (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction (ii) Gattermann-Koch reaction (iii) Haloform reaction (iv) Esterification Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) ✓
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Solution: Gattermann-Koch reaction: benzene with CO and HCl over anhydrous AlCl$_3$/CuCl gives benzaldehyde. Haloform reaction: a methyl ketone with NaOX gives the carboxylate salt and CHX$_3$. Esterification: an alcohol with a carboxylic acid and concentrated H$_2$SO$_4$ gives the ester. Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction: a carboxylic acid with an $\alpha$-hydrogen, treated with X$_2$/Red P then H$_2$O, gives the $\alpha$-halo acid. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Q90.

In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?

  • A. H$_2$O < H$_2$S < H$_2$Se < H$_2$Te : Increasing p$K_a$ values ✓
  • B. NH$_3$ < PH$_3$ < AsH$_3$ < SbH$_3$ : Increasing acidic character
  • C. CO$_2$ < SiO$_2$ < SnO$_2$ < PbO$_2$ : Increasing oxidizing power
  • D. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength

Solution: The stronger the acid, the lower is the value of p$K_a$. On moving down the group, the bond dissociation enthalpy of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases, hence acidity increases and the p$K_a$ value decreases. So the correct order of p$K_a$ value will be $$\text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{H}_2\text{S} > \text{H}_2\text{Se} > \text{H}_2\text{Te}$$ The sequence given in option (1) is therefore the wrong way round.

Q91.

The reagent '$R$' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is: 2,4,6-Tribromoaniline is treated with NaNO$_2$, HCl at 0-5$^{\circ}$C to give the diazonium salt, which with reagent $R$ gives 1,3,5-tribromobenzene.

  • A. CH$_3$CH$_2$OH ✓
  • B. HI
  • C. CuCN/KCN
  • D. H$_2$O

Solution: Treating the aromatic amine with NaNO$_2$/HCl at 0-5$^{\circ}$C gives the aryl diazonium salt. To replace the diazonium group by hydrogen, the salt is warmed with ethanol; the ethanol acts as the reducing agent and is itself oxidised to acetaldehyde. So reagent $R$ is C$_2$H$_5$OH with the diazonium salt. H$_2$O would give the phenol and CuCN/KCN the nitrile, neither of which is the required product.

Q92.

For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

  • A. $\Delta U \neq 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} \neq 0$
  • B. $\Delta U = 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} \neq 0$ ✓
  • C. $\Delta U \neq 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} = 0$
  • D. $\Delta U = 0$, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} = 0$

Solution: For a spontaneous process, $\Delta S_{\text{total}} > 0$, and since an irreversible process is always spontaneous, therefore $\Delta S_{\text{total}} > 0$. Since $\Delta U = nC_V\Delta T$ and $\Delta T = 0$ for an isothermal process, therefore $\Delta U = 0$.

Q93.

The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45$^{\circ}$C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is : [At 45$^{\circ}$C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]

  • A. 168 mm of Hg
  • B. 336 mm of Hg ✓
  • C. 350 mm of Hg
  • D. 160 mm of Hg

Solution: Given $n_{\text{C}_6\text{H}_6} : n_{\text{C}_8\text{H}_{18}} = 3 : 2$. So $\chi_{\text{C}_6\text{H}_6} = \dfrac{3}{5}$ and $\chi_{\text{C}_8\text{H}_{18}} = \dfrac{2}{5}$. $$p_s = p^{\circ}_{\text{C}_6\text{H}_6}\chi_{\text{C}_6\text{H}_6} + p^{\circ}_{\text{C}_8\text{H}_{18}}\chi_{\text{C}_8\text{H}_{18}}$$ $$= 280 \times \frac{3}{5} + 420 \times \frac{2}{5}$$ $$= 168 + 168 = 336\ \text{mm of Hg}$$

Q94.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) [Fe(CN)$_6$]$^{3-}$ (b) [Fe(H$_2$O)$_6$]$^{3+}$ (c) [Fe(CN)$_6$]$^{4-}$ (d) [Fe(H$_2$O)$_6$]$^{2+}$ List-II: (i) 5.92 BM (ii) 0 BM (iii) 4.90 BM (iv) 1.73 BM Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Solution: Magnetic moment, $\mu = \sqrt{n(n + 2)}$ BM, where $n$ = number of unpaired electrons. [Fe(CN)$_6$]$^{3-}$ — CN$^{-}$ is a strong field ligand, so Fe$^{3+}$ ($d^{5}$) pairs up to leave 1 unpaired electron, $\mu = 1.73$ BM. [Fe(H$_2$O)$_6$]$^{3+}$ — H$_2$O is a weak field ligand, so $d^{5}$ stays high spin with 5 unpaired electrons, $\mu = 5.92$ BM. [Fe(CN)$_6$]$^{4-}$ — Fe$^{2+}$ ($d^{6}$) with a strong field ligand pairs completely, 0 unpaired electrons, $\mu = 0$. [Fe(H$_2$O)$_6$]$^{2+}$ — Fe$^{2+}$ ($d^{6}$) high spin, 4 unpaired electrons, $\mu = 4.90$ BM. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Q95.

The slope of Arrhenius plot $\left(\ln k \text{ v/s } \dfrac{1}{T}\right)$ of first order reaction is $-5 \times 10^{3}$ K. The value of $E_a$ of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer. [Given R = 8.314 JK$^{-1}$mol$^{-1}$]

  • A. 83.0 kJ mol$^{-1}$
  • B. 166 kJ mol$^{-1}$
  • C. $-83$ kJ mol$^{-1}$
  • D. 41.5 kJ mol$^{-1}$ ✓

Solution: Arrhenius equation $$k = Ae^{-E_a/RT}$$ $$\ln k = \ln A + \ln e^{-E_a/RT}$$ $$\ln k = \ln A - \frac{E_a}{R}\left(\frac{1}{T}\right)$$ Slope of the $\ln k$ vs $\dfrac{1}{T}$ curve, $$m = -\frac{E_a}{R}$$ $$-5 \times 10^{3} = -\frac{E_a}{R}$$ $$E_a = 5 \times 10^{3} \times 8.314\ \text{J/mol} = 41.57 \times 10^{3}\ \text{J/mol} \simeq 41.5\ \text{kJ/mol}$$

Q96.

From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?

  • A. Na$^{+}$, Mg$^{2+}$
  • B. Mn$^{2+}$, Fe$^{3+}$
  • C. Fe$^{2+}$, Mn$^{2+}$ ✓
  • D. O$^{2-}$, F$^{-}$

Solution: Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons. Fe$^{2+}$: $26 - 2 = 24$ Mn$^{2+}$: $25 - 2 = 23$ O$^{2-}$: $8 + 2 = 10$ F$^{-}$: $9 + 1 = 10$ Na$^{+}$: $11 - 1 = 10$ Mg$^{2+}$: $12 - 2 = 10$ Fe$^{3+}$: $26 - 3 = 23$ So Fe$^{2+}$ (24 electrons) and Mn$^{2+}$ (23 electrons) are not an isoelectronic pair.

Q97.

Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O$_2$ and 2 g H$_2$ confined in a total volume of one litre at 0$^{\circ}$C is : [Given R = 0.082 L atm mol$^{-1}$K$^{-1}$, T = 273 K]

  • A. 2.602
  • B. 25.18 ✓
  • C. 26.02
  • D. 2.518

Solution: $$n_{\text{O}_2} = \frac{4}{32} = \frac{1}{8}$$ $$n_{\text{H}_2} = \frac{2}{2} = 1$$ $$n_t = \frac{1}{8} + 1 = \frac{9}{8}$$ $$P_tV = n_tRT$$ $$P_t = \frac{\dfrac{9}{8} \times 0.082 \times 273}{1} = 25.18\ \text{atm}$$

Q98.

$$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COO}^{-}\text{Na}^{+} \xrightarrow[\text{Heat}]{\text{NaOH},\ +?} \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_3 + \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$$ Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

  • A. Red Phosphorus
  • B. CaO ✓
  • C. DIBAL-H
  • D. B$_2$H$_6$

Solution: An alkane is produced by heating the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid with sodalime (NaOH and CaO in the ratio of 3 : 1). $$\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COO}^{-}\text{Na}^{+} \xrightarrow[\text{Heat}]{\text{NaOH} + \text{CaO}} \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_3 + \text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3$$ So the missing chemical is CaO.

Q99.

The intermediate compound '$X$' in the following chemical reaction is: Toluene treated with CrO$_2$Cl$_2$ in CS$_2$ gives $X$, which on treatment with H$_3$O$^{+}$ gives benzaldehyde.

  • A. C$_6$H$_5$–CH(OCOCH$_3$)$_2$
  • B. C$_6$H$_5$–CHCl$_2$
  • C. C$_6$H$_5$–CHCl(H)
  • D. C$_6$H$_5$–CH(OCrOHCl$_2$)$_2$ ✓

Solution: This is Etard's reaction. Toluene reacts with chromyl chloride, CrO$_2$Cl$_2$, in CS$_2$ to give the chromium complex known as the Etard complex, in which the benzylic carbon carries two OCrOHCl$_2$ groups. That complex is then hydrolysed with H$_3$O$^{+}$ to give benzaldehyde. So the intermediate '$X$' is C$_6$H$_5$–CH(OCrOHCl$_2$)$_2$.

Q100.

Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?

  • A. CH$_2$O
  • B. SbCl$_5$ ✓
  • C. NO$_2$
  • D. POCl$_3$

Solution: SbCl$_5$ is trigonal bipyramidal and symmetrical, so the net vector summation of bond moments is zero and SbCl$_5$ is a non-polar molecule. NO$_2$ is bent, so it is a polar molecule. POCl$_3$ is tetrahedral with one P=O and three P–Cl bonds, so it is a polar molecule. CH$_2$O is trigonal planar with a C=O bond, so it is a polar molecule.

Q101.

In the equation GPP – R = NPP R represents :

  • A. Retardation factor
  • B. Environmental factor
  • C. Respiration losses ✓
  • D. Radiant energy

Solution: In the equation GPP – R = NPP, R refers to respiratory loss. GPP is gross primary productivity and NPP is net primary productivity.

Q102.

Which of the following plants is monoecious?

  • A. $Chara$ ✓
  • B. $Marchantia$ $polymorpha$
  • C. $Cycas$ $circinalis$
  • D. $Carica$ $papaya$

Solution: When male and female sex organs are present on the same plant body, such plants are said to be monoecious. Most of the species of $Chara$ are monoecious. $Cycas$ $circinalis$, $Carica$ $papaya$ and $Marchantia$ $polymorpha$ are dioecious.

Q103.

Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

  • A. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
  • B. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
  • C. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
  • D. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension ✓

Solution: The first step in the polymerase chain reaction is denaturation, during which the strands of $ds$DNA separate. This requires a temperature around 94$^{\circ}$C. This is followed by annealing, in which primers anneal to the 3$'$ end of the template DNA strand. Annealing is followed by extension, in which $Taq$ polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3$'$OH end of the primers.

Q104.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Lenticels (b) Cork cambium (c) Secondary cortex (d) Cork List-II: (i) Phellogen (ii) Suberin deposition (iii) Exchange of gases (iv) Phelloderm Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) ✓
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Solution: Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases. Phellogen is also known as cork cambium. Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex, because it is the cortex that develops during secondary growth. Cork has deposition of suberin in its cell walls when the cells get mature. So (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii).

Q105.

Diadelphous stamens are found in

  • A. Citrus
  • B. Pea ✓
  • C. China rose and citrus
  • D. China rose

Solution: Stamens are said to be diadelphous when these are united in two bundles, e.g. Pea. China rose has monoadelphous stamens, while $Citrus$ has polyadelphous stamens. Monoadelphous stamens are grouped in a single bundle whereas polyadelphous stamens occur in more than two bundles.

Q106.

The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field

  • A. NAA
  • B. 2, 4-D ✓
  • C. IBA
  • D. IAA

Solution: Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides. 2,4-D is widely used to remove broad leaved weeds or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops or monocotyledonous plants. IAA and IBA are natural auxins, and NAA is a synthetic auxin but not the standard weedicide.

Q107.

DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as

  • A. Bright orange bands ✓
  • B. Dark red bands
  • C. Bright blue bands
  • D. Yellow bands

Solution: After the bands are stained, they are viewed in UV light. The bands appear bright orange in colour. Ethidium bromide is the intercalating agent that stacks in between the nitrogenous bases.

Q108.

The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :

  • A. Geitonogamy
  • B. Chasmogamy
  • C. Cleistogamy
  • D. Xenogamy ✓

Solution: Xenogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grains from the anthers of one plant to the stigma of a different plant, which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma. Cleistogamy is a condition in which the flower does not open. Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant. Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers remain open.

Q109.

Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

  • A. Metaphase II
  • B. Anaphase II ✓
  • C. Telophase II
  • D. Metaphase I

Solution: Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II. Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II; during this phase the chromatids reach the poles and start uncoiling. Chromosomes form two parallel plates in metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.

Q110.

When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :

  • A. Telocentric
  • B. Sub-metacentric
  • C. Acrocentric
  • D. Metacentric ✓

Solution: When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred to as metacentric. When the centromere is present slightly away from the middle, it is called a sub-metacentric chromosome. When the centromere is present very close to one end of the chromosome, it is called an acrocentric chromosome. When the centromere is present at a terminal position, the chromosome is called telocentric.

Q111.

Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

  • A. Competitive release
  • B. Mutualism
  • C. Predation
  • D. Resource partitioning ✓

Solution: Inspite of interspecific competition, the competing species may co-exist by doing resource partitioning. In mutualism two organisms are equally benefitted. In predation one organism (predator) eats the other one (prey). In competitive release there occurs a dramatic increase in the population of a less distributed species when its superior competitor is removed.

Q112.

The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F$_1$ and F$_2$ plants, can be understood from a diagram called :

  • A. Punch square
  • B. Punnett square ✓
  • C. Net square
  • D. Bullet square

Solution: The production of gametes ($n$) by the parents ($2n$), the formation of the zygote ($2n$), the F$_1$ and F$_2$ plants can be understood from a diagram called a Punnett square. It was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.

Q113.

The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is

  • A. Stem
  • B. Axillary bud
  • C. Leaf ✓
  • D. Shoot apex

Solution: The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is the leaf. The site of perception of the low temperature stimulus during vernalisation is the shoot apex and embryo. Axillary buds are not sites of perception of photoperiod.

Q114.

The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :

  • A. Genetic recombination
  • B. Mutation
  • C. Genetic drift ✓
  • D. Natural selection

Solution: Change in gene frequency in a small population by chance is known as genetic drift. Genetic drift has two ramifications, one is the bottle neck effect and another is the founder's effect. When accidentally a few individuals are dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated population, founder's effect is said to be observed.

Q115.

When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :

  • A. Gene therapy ✓
  • B. Molecular diagnosis
  • C. Safety testing
  • D. Biopiracy

Solution: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment. Molecular diagnosis refers to the act or process of determining the nature and cause of a disease.

Q116.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

  • A. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells
  • B. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm
  • C. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm
  • D. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles ✓

Solution: A mature sieve tube element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but LACKS a nucleus. The rest of the statements are correct.

Q117.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Cells with active cell division capacity (b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function (c) Tissue having different types of cells (d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen List-II: (i) Vascular tissues (ii) Meristematic tissue (iii) Sclereids (iv) Simple tissue Select the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) ✓

Solution: (a) Meristematic tissues are those tissues which have cells with active cell division capacity. (b) Simple tissues are those tissues which have all the cells similar in structure and function. (c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues, hence they have different types of cells. (d) Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells which are dead with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Q118.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Cristae (b) Thylakoids (c) Centromere (d) Cisternae List-II: (i) Primary constriction in chromosome (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Solution: The inner membrane of mitochondria forms infoldings called cristae. Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in the stroma of plastids. Cisternae are disc shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus. The primary constriction in a chromosome that holds two chromatids together is called the centromere. Hence the correct option is (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Q119.

During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :

  • A. DNA ✓
  • B. Histones
  • C. Polysaccharides
  • D. RNA

Solution: Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are added to break down substances like proteins, RNA, etc. Once all these substances are broken down, DNA is left, which is precipitated out by adding chilled ethanol. Histones are basic proteins that help condense DNA in a cell, and they are removed earlier by the protease treatment.

Q120.

Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?

  • A. Amino acids, glucose ✓
  • B. Vinblastin, curcumin
  • C. Rubber, gums
  • D. Morphine, codeine

Solution: Amino acids and glucose are included under the category of primary metabolites, as they have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological processes. Rubber, gums, morphine, codeine, vinblastin and curcumin are included under the category of secondary metabolites, as their role or functions in host organisms is not known yet. However, many of them are useful to human welfare.

Q121.

Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

  • A. $Gracilaria$
  • B. $Volvox$
  • C. $Ulothrix$
  • D. $Ectocarpus$ ✓

Solution: $Ectocarpus$ is a brown alga belonging to the class Phaeophyceae. Members of this class have mannitol and laminarin as stored food material. $Ulothrix$ and $Volvox$ belong to Chlorophyceae (green algae). Members of this class have starch as reserve food material. $Gracilaria$ is a member of red algae (Rhodophyceae). This class is characterised by having floridean starch as stored food material.

Q122.

Gemmae are present in

  • A. Pteridophytes
  • B. Some Gymnosperms
  • C. Some Liverworts ✓
  • D. Mosses

Solution: Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds that are produced by some liverworts like $Marchantia$. Mosses reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation and budding of protonema. Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms normally do not reproduce asexually.

Q123.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • A. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright. ✓
  • B. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
  • C. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
  • D. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

Solution: Pyramid of biomass in the sea is INVERTED. For example, biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of phytoplanktons, as the life span of the former is longer and the latter multiply much faster though having a shorter life span. A small standing crop of phytoplankton supports a large standing crop of zooplankton.

Q124.

Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called

  • A. Flexibility
  • B. Plasticity ✓
  • C. Maturity
  • D. Elasticity

Solution: Plants show plasticity, which means the ability of a plant to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to environment. Heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur is a common example.

Q125.

Amensalism can be represented as:

  • A. Species A (+); Species B (+)
  • B. Species A ($-$); Species B ($-$)
  • C. Species A (+); Species B (0)
  • D. Species A ($-$); Species B (0) ✓

Solution: Amensalism is an interaction between two organisms of different species in which one species inhibits the growth of the other species by secreting certain chemicals. The other species is neither benefited nor harmed. (+) : (0) interaction is observed in commensalism. (+) : (+) interaction is observed in mutualism. ($-$) : ($-$) interaction is seen in competition.

Q126.

Complete the flow chart on central dogma. DNA, with a self-referring arrow labelled (a), gives mRNA by step (b), which gives (d) by step (c).

  • A. (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
  • B. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein ✓
  • C. (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
  • D. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein

Solution: Formation of DNA from DNA is replication. Formation of mRNA from DNA is called transcription. Formation of protein from mRNA is called translation. So, (a) is Replication, (b) is Transcription, (c) is Translation and (d) is Protein. Transduction is the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another with the help of a virus or a bacteriophage.

Q127.

Genera like $Selaginella$ and $Salvinia$ produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:

  • A. Heterosorus
  • B. Homosporous
  • C. Heterosporous ✓
  • D. Homosorus

Solution: Plants like $Selaginella$ and $Salvinia$ produce two kinds of spores, i.e. microspores and macrospores. They are known as heterosporous. Most of the pteridophytes produce a single type of spore and are called homosporous. Sori are brownish or yellowish clusters of spore-producing structures located on the lower surface of fern leaves.

Q128.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Cohesion (b) Adhesion (c) Surface tension (d) Guttation List-II: (i) More attraction in liquid phase (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules (iii) Water loss in liquid phase (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) ✓

Solution: Cohesion is mutual attraction among water molecules. Adhesion is attraction towards polar surfaces. Surface tension explains that water molecules are more attracted in the liquid phase than the gaseous phase. Guttation is loss of water in liquid form from the leaf margins. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Q129.

Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

  • A. Infrared rays
  • B. Gamma rays ✓
  • C. Zeatin
  • D. Kinetin

Solution: Several kinds of radiation like gamma rays, X-rays and UV-rays cause mutation. These are physical mutagens. Such induced mutation in plants is done to develop improved varieties. The first natural cytokinin was isolated from unripe maize grain, known as zeatin. The cytokinin that was obtained from the degraded product of autoclaved herring sperm DNA was kinetin (N$^{6}$-furfuryl aminopurine). Infrared rays cause a heating effect rather than mutation.

Q130.

Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

  • A. Gene amplification
  • B. Purification of isolated protein ✓
  • C. Detection of gene mutation
  • D. Molecular diagnosis

Solution: PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction. It is used for making multiple copies of the gene. Hence PCR is used for gene amplification, and PCR-based assays have been developed that detect the presence of gene sequences of infectious agents and gene mutations. Purification of an isolated protein is not something PCR can do — PCR works on nucleic acids, not proteins.

Q131.

The first stable product of CO$_2$ fixation in Sorghum is

  • A. Oxaloacetic acid ✓
  • B. Succinic acid
  • C. Phosphoglyceric acid
  • D. Pyruvic acid

Solution: $Sorghum$ is a C$_4$ plant. The first stable product of CO$_2$ fixation in $Sorghum$ is oxaloacetic acid. The first stable product in the C$_3$ cycle is 3-phosphoglyceric acid. Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis. Succinic acid is an intermediate product in the Krebs cycle.

Q132.

Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

  • A. Brown algae
  • B. Red algae ✓
  • C. Blue-green algae
  • D. Green algae

Solution: The cell wall of red algae is composed of agar, carrageen and funori along with cellulose. In brown algae the cell wall contains algin, while in green algae it is composed of cellulose and pectin. In blue green algae the cell wall is composed of mucopeptides.

Q133.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Protoplast fusion (b) Plant tissue culture (c) Meristem culture (d) Micropropagation List-II: (i) Totipotency (ii) Pomato (iii) Somaclones (iv) Virus free plants Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) ✓
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Solution: Pomato is obtained as a result of protoplast fusion. Totipotency is a property of an explant to develop into a whole plant body during plant tissue culture. Virus free plants can be obtained through meristem culture. Somaclones are obtained by the process of micropropagation. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).

Q134.

A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

  • A. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
  • B. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
  • C. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
  • D. 8-nucleate and 7-celled ✓

Solution: A typical angiospermic embryo sac has seven cells: three antipodals, one central cell, one egg cell and two synergids. The central cell has two polar nuclei, hence the embryo sac is eight nucleated.

Q135.

The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :

  • A. Climax community
  • B. Standing state ✓
  • C. Standing crop
  • D. Climax

Solution: The amount of all the inorganic substances or nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in soil at any given time, is referred to as the standing state. The amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time is referred to as the standing crop. Climax community is the last community in biotic succession, which is relatively stable and is in near equilibrium with the environment of that area.

Q136.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • A. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
  • B. Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
  • C. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II ✓
  • D. Both ATP and NADPH + H$^{+}$ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation

Solution: Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I. Both PS I and PS II are involved in non-cyclic photophosphorylation, where both ATP and NADPH + H$^{+}$ are synthesized. Both PS I and PS II are found on grana lamellae, whereas stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.

Q137.

Identify the correct statement.

  • A. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria ✓
  • B. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA
  • C. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes
  • D. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3$'$ end of hnRNA

Solution: RNA polymerase associates with the $\rho$ factor (Rho factor), and it alters the specificity of the RNA polymerase to terminate the process — so that statement is correct. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of eukaryotes, not prokaryotes. In capping, 5-methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at the 5$'$ end of hnRNA, not the 3$'$ end; at the 3$'$ end a poly-A tail is added. The non-coding or template strand is copied to an mRNA, not the coding strand.

Q138.

Match Column-I with Column-II. Column-I: (a) $Nitrococcus$ (b) $Rhizobium$ (c) $Thiobacillus$ (d) $Nitrobacter$ Column-II: (i) Denitrification (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia Choose the correct answer from options given below.

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) ✓

Solution: Nitrogen fixation is conversion of atmospheric N$_2$ to NH$_3$ (ammonia). It is carried out by N$_2$ fixers such as $Rhizobium$. NH$_3$ is converted to NO$_2^{-}$ (nitrite) by nitrifying bacteria such as $Nitrococcus$. Then NO$_2^{-}$ is converted to NO$_3^{-}$ (nitrate) by nitrifying bacteria called $Nitrobacter$. $Thiobacillus$ carries out denitrification, a process where NO$_2^{-}$/NO$_3^{-}$ is converted to N$_2$. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Q139.

What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?

  • A. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA ✓
  • B. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
  • C. Transcribes only snRNAs
  • D. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

Solution: In eukaryotes there are three major types of RNA polymerases. RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S). RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA, i.e. hnRNA. RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA.

Q140.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) S phase (b) G$_2$ phase (c) Quiescent stage (d) G$_1$ phase List-II: (i) Proteins are synthesized (ii) Inactive phase (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication (iv) DNA replication Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Solution: In S phase DNA replication takes place. In G$_2$ phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA etc. Quiescent stage is the inactive stage of the cell cycle, but cells remain metabolically active in this stage. G$_1$ phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Q141.

Select the correct pair.

  • A. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells — Conjunctive tissue
  • B. Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring — Interfascicular cambium ✓
  • C. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark — Spongy parenchyma
  • D. Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves — Subsidiary cells

Solution: When the cells of medullary rays differentiate, they give rise to the new cambium called interfascicular cambium — so that pair is correct. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark are called complementary cells, not spongy parenchyma. Large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves are called bulliform cells, not subsidiary cells. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick walled cells called bundle sheath cells, not conjunctive tissue.

Q142.

In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?

  • A. Poaceae ; Leguminosae
  • B. Poaceae ; Solanaceae
  • C. Rosaceae ; Leguminosae ✓
  • D. Poaceae ; Rosaceae

Solution: In members of some plant families like Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Leguminosae, the pollen grains retain their viability for several months. In cereals (Poaceae) pollen grains retain viability for around 30 minutes. So the pair in which both families show months-long viability is Rosaceae and Leguminosae.

Q143.

Which of the following statements is correct ?

  • A. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy ✓
  • B. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes
  • C. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
  • D. Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy

Solution: Fusion of protoplasts of two cells is called plasmogamy — so that statement is correct. In some blue-green algae, specialised cells called heterocysts fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, not sheath cells. Fusion of two NUCLEI is called karyogamy, not fusion of two cells. Organisms that depend on living plants are parasites; saprophytes grow on dead material.

Q144.

Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :

  • A. Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film
  • B. Mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it ✓
  • C. Mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it
  • D. Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film

Solution: Autoradiography allows the detection/localisation of a radioactive isotope within a biological sample. A probe is a radiolabelled $ss$ DNA or $ss$ RNA depending on the technique. To identify the mutated gene, the probe is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by detection using autoradiography. The mutated gene will not appear on the photographic film, because the probe does not have complementarity with the mutated gene.

Q145.

Plasmid pBR322 has $Pst$I restriction enzyme site within gene $amp^{R}$ that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for $\beta$-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an $E.coli$ strain

  • A. The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce $\beta$-galactoside
  • B. It will lead to lysis of host cell
  • C. It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
  • D. It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell ✓

Solution: pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector. When the gene for $\beta$-galactoside is inserted in the ampicillin resistance gene by using $Pst$ I, the recombinant $E.coli$ will lose ampicillin resistance due to insertional inactivation of the antibiotic resistance gene. The host (recombinant) cell will produce $\beta$-galactoside, which is not a novel protein, nor does it have dual ability. The transformed cells cannot resist ampicillin as they have lost ampicillin resistance. A recombinant $E. coli$ is produced and the host cell will not undergo lysis due to insertion of the $\beta$-galactoside gene.

Q146.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • A. In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H$^{+}$ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH$_2$ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules ✓
  • B. ATP is synthesized through complex V
  • C. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration
  • D. During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage

Solution: During respiration, the process of ATP synthesis is explained by the chemiosmotic model. It says that a proton gradient is required for ATP synthesis, and that gradient is established by oxidation-reduction reactions. In ETC, one NADH + H$^{+}$ produces 3 ATP while one FADH$_2$ produces 2 ATP molecules — the statement in option (1) reverses these, so it is incorrect. ATP is synthesised via complex V, and in the ETS oxygen acts as the terminal electron acceptor.

Q147.

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as

  • A. Repetitive DNA ✓
  • B. Single nucleotides
  • C. Polymorphic DNA
  • D. Satellite DNA

Solution: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called repetitive DNA. The basis of DNA fingerprinting is VNTR, a satellite DNA used as a probe that shows a very high degree of polymorphism. Polymorphism is the variation at genetic level. Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism.

Q148.

Match Column-I with Column-II Column-I gives four floral formulas, printed with their symmetry symbols, sex symbols and whorl notations. Column-II: (i) Brassicaceae (ii) Liliaceae (iii) Fabaceae (iv) Solanaceae Select the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓

Solution: The floral formulas of the four families are: Brassicaceae family — actinomorphic, bisexual, K$_{2+2}$ C$_4$ A$_{2+4}$ G$_{(2)}$ Solanaceae family — actinomorphic, bisexual, K$_{(5)}$ C$_{(5)}$ A$_5$ G$_{(2)}$ Fabaceae family — zygomorphic, bisexual, K$_{(5)}$ C$_{1+2+(2)}$ A$_{(9)+1}$ G$_1$ Liliaceae family — actinomorphic, bisexual, P$_{(3+3)}$ A$_{3+3}$ G$_{(3)}$ Matching the printed formulas to these gives (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Q149.

In the exponential growth equation $N_t = N_0e^{rt}$, $e$ represents

  • A. The base of exponential logarithms
  • B. The base of natural logarithms ✓
  • C. The base of geometric logarithms
  • D. The base of number logarithms

Solution: In the exponential growth equation $N_t = N_0e^{rt}$, $e$ represents the base of natural logarithms. $N_t$ = Population density after time $t$ $N_0$ = Population density at time zero $r$ = Intrinsic rate of natural increase, called biotic potential

Q150.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Protein (b) Unsaturated fatty acid (c) Nucleic acid (d) Polysaccharide List-II: (i) C = C double bonds (ii) Phosphodiester bonds (iii) Glycosidic bonds (iv) Peptide bonds Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓

Solution: In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond, which is formed when the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid reacts with the amino (–NH$_2$) group of the next amino acid with the elimination of a water moiety. Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more C = C double bonds. Nucleic acids have their nucleotides joined by phosphodiester bonds. Polysaccharides have their sugar units joined by glycosidic bonds. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Q151.

Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

  • A. Zygotene
  • B. Diakinesis ✓
  • C. Pachytene
  • D. Leptotene

Solution: In meiosis I, chiasmata (X shaped structure) are formed in the diplotene stage while they terminalise in the diakinesis stage. Bivalents are formed in the zygotene stage and crossing over takes place in the pachytene stage. Compaction of chromosomal material occurs in the leptotene stage.

Q152.

Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

  • A. $Hemidactylus$
  • B. $Macropus$
  • C. $Ornithorhynchus$
  • D. $Neophron$ ✓

Solution: Hollow and pneumatic long bones are present in animals that belong to class Aves, e.g. $Neophron$ (vulture). $Ornithorhynchus$ (Platypus) and $Macropus$ (Kangaroo) belong to class Mammalia. $Hemidactylus$ (Wall lizard) is a member of class Reptilia.

Q153.

Match the following: List-I: (a) $Physalia$ (b) $Limulus$ (c) $Ancylostoma$ (d) $Pinctada$ List-II: (i) Pearl oyster (ii) Portuguese Man of War (iii) Living fossil (iv) Hookworm Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) ✓
  • C. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Solution: $Physalia$ is commonly known as Portuguese man of war. $Limulus$ is considered as a living fossil and commonly known as king crab. $Ancylostoma$ is a roundworm and commonly known as hookworm. $Pinctada$ is commonly known as pearl oyster, included in phylum Mollusca. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Q154.

Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?

  • A. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
  • B. In females, 7$^{\text{th}}$-9$^{\text{th}}$ sterna together form a genital pouch
  • C. 10$^{\text{th}}$ abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci
  • D. A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut ✓

Solution: Option (4) is incorrect, because a ring of gastric caecae is present at the junction of foregut and midgut. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, Malpighian tubules are present. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouthparts. In female cockroach, the 7$^{\text{th}}$ sternum is boat shaped and together with the 8$^{\text{th}}$ and 9$^{\text{th}}$ sterna forms a genital pouch. 10$^{\text{th}}$ abdominal segment in both sexes bears a pair of anal cerci, and the 9$^{\text{th}}$ sternum only in male cockroach bears a pair of chitinous anal styles.

Q155.

Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:

  • A. Muscular dystrophy
  • B. Myasthenia gravis ✓
  • C. Gout
  • D. Arthritis

Solution: Myasthenia gravis is a chronic auto immune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction, leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle. Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle. Gout is inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals. Arthritis is inflammation of the joints.

Q156.

Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :

  • A. Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
  • B. Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
  • C. Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma ✓
  • D. Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

Solution: Persons with 'AB' blood group contain antigens 'A' and 'B' but lack antibodies anti-A and anti-B in plasma. So, persons with 'AB' blood group can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the other groups of blood due to lack of antibodies in their blood. Therefore, such persons are called "Universal recipients".

Q157.

Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

  • A. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
  • B. The cells of bone marrow
  • C. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney ✓
  • D. Alpha cells of pancreas

Solution: Juxtaglomerular cells of kidney secrete erythropoietin hormone, which stimulates RBC formation. Alpha cells of pancreas produce the hormone glucagon. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis synthesise hormones of the anterior lobe of the pituitary. The cells of bone marrow are responsible for formation of formed elements.

Q158.

Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance Choose the correct answer from the option given below

  • A. (b), (c) and (d) only
  • B. (b) and (c) only ✓
  • C. (a) and (c) only
  • D. (a), (b) and (c) only

Solution: Venereal diseases, or sexually transmitted diseases or infections, are transmitted by sharing of infected needles and surgical instruments with an infected person, transfusion of blood, or from an infected mother to foetus. Using STERILE needles does not transmit them, and venereal diseases are not transmitted through kissing or inheritance. Hence (b) and (c) only.

Q159.

With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. (b) and (c) only
  • B. (a), (c) and (d) only ✓
  • C. (a) and (d) only
  • D. (b) and (d) only

Solution: Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch called the C-peptide. C-peptide is not present in mature insulin, called humulin — the insulin produced by rDNA technology likewise has no C-peptide. Chains A and B are connected by interchain disulphide bridges. Hence (a), (c) and (d) only.

Q160.

The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O$_2$) and carbon dioxide (CO$_2$) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:

  • A. pO$_2$ = 40 and pCO$_2$ = 45
  • B. pO$_2$ = 95 and pCO$_2$ = 40
  • C. pO$_2$ = 159 and pCO$_2$ = 0.3
  • D. pO$_2$ = 104 and pCO$_2$ = 40 ✓

Solution: pO$_2$ in alveoli is 104 mm Hg and pCO$_2$ in alveoli is 40 mm Hg. In atmosphere, pO$_2$ is 159 mm Hg and pCO$_2$ is 0.3 mm Hg. In deoxygenated blood, pO$_2$ is 40 mm Hg and pCO$_2$ is 45 mm Hg. In oxygenated blood, pO$_2$ is 95 mm Hg and pCO$_2$ is 40 mm Hg.

Q161.

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

  • A. Renin
  • B. Epinephrine
  • C. Thrombokinase
  • D. Thrombin ✓

Solution: During coagulation of blood, an enzyme complex thrombokinase helps in the conversion of prothrombin (present in plasma) into thrombin. Thrombin further helps in the conversion of inactive fibrinogens into fibrins, which form a network of threads. Renin is secreted by JG cells in response to a fall in glomerular blood flow, which converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I. Epinephrine or adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to stress of any kind and during emergency.

Q162.

Identify the incorrect pair

  • A. Toxin – Abrin
  • B. Lectins – Concanavalin A
  • C. Drugs – Ricin ✓
  • D. Alkaloids – Codeine

Solution: Option (3) is incorrect, because ricin is a TOXIN obtained from the $Ricinus$ plant. Vinblastin and curcumin are drugs. Morphine and codeine are alkaloids. Abrin is also a toxin obtained from the plant $Abrus$. Concanavalin A is a lectin.

Q163.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) $Aspergillus$ $niger$ (b) $Acetobacter$ $aceti$ (c) $Clostridium$ $butylicum$ (d) $Lactobacillus$ List-II: (i) Acetic Acid (ii) Lactic Acid (iii) Citric Acid (iv) Butyric Acid Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) ✓

Solution: $Aspergillus$ $niger$ is involved in production of citric acid. $Acetobacter$ $aceti$ is involved in production of acetic acid. $Clostridium$ $butylicum$ is involved in production of butyric acid. $Lactobacillus$ is involved in the production of lactic acid. So (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) is the correct matching.

Q164.

Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

  • A. LNG 20 ✓
  • B. Cu 7
  • C. Multiload 375
  • D. CuT

Solution: LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD, which makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms. Multiload 375, CuT and Cu7 are copper releasing IUDs, which suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of sperms.

Q165.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Metamerism (b) Canal system (c) Comb plates (d) Cnidoblasts List-II: (i) Coelenterata (ii) Ctenophora (iii) Annelida (iv) Porifera Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Solution: Metamerism is commonly seen in the members of phylum Annelida, where the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of at least some organs. Water canal system is present in the members of phylum Porifera. The body of ctenophores bears 8 external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion. Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are a characteristic feature of cnidarians (Coelenterata). So (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Q166.

A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

  • A. Okazaki sequences
  • B. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences ✓
  • C. Poly(A) tail sequences
  • D. Degenerate primer sequence

Solution: Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA. Once it finds its specific recognition sequence, it binds to DNA and cuts each of the two strands of DNA. During post transcriptional modification in eukaryotes, poly(A) tail (200–300 adenylate residues) is added at the 3$'$ end of hnRNA. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are synthesized discontinuously and joined by DNA ligase. A PCR primer sequence is termed degenerate if some of its positions have several possible bases.

Q167.

Succus entericus is referred to as:

  • A. Intestinal juice ✓
  • B. Gastric juice
  • C. Chyme
  • D. Pancreatic juice

Solution: Succus entericus is referred to as intestinal juice. Chyme is the name given to acidic food present in the stomach. Exocrine secretion of pancreatic acini is called pancreatic juice. Secretion of gastric glands present in the stomach is called gastric juice.

Q168.

Read the following statements (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  • B. (a), (d) and (e) are correct
  • C. (b), (c) and (e) are correct ✓
  • D. (c), (d) and (e) are correct

Solution: Metagenesis (alternation of generation) is observed in members of phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria), not in Helminths — so (a) is wrong. Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals, as a true coelom is observed in them. Roundworms (Aschelminths) have organ system level of organization. Comb plates present in ctenophores help in locomotion, not digestion — so (d) is wrong. Water vascular system is seen in echinoderms, which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration. Hence (b), (c) and (e) are correct.

Q169.

Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?

  • A. DNA dependent RNA polymerase ✓
  • B. DNA Ligase
  • C. DNase
  • D. DNA dependent DNA polymerase

Solution: In prokaryotes, the DNA dependent RNA polymerase is a holoenzyme that is made of polypeptides ($\alpha_2\beta\beta'\omega$) $\sigma$. It is responsible for initiation, elongation and termination during transcription. DNase degrades DNA. DNA dependent DNA polymerase is involved in replication of DNA. DNA ligase joins the discontinuously synthesised fragments of DNA.

Q170.

The centriole undergoes duplication during:

  • A. Prophase
  • B. Metaphase
  • C. G$_2$ phase
  • D. S-phase ✓

Solution: During S phase of the cell cycle, replication of DNA takes place. In animal cells during S phase, the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm. In G$_2$ phase there is duplication of mitochondria, chloroplast and Golgi bodies. Tubulin protein is also synthesized during this phase. During prophase, condensation of chromatin starts. During metaphase, chromosomes get aligned at the equator to form the metaphasic plate.

Q171.

The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are

  • A. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles ✓
  • B. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
  • C. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
  • D. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

Solution: The endomembrane system consists of endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, vacuoles and lysosomes. Mitochondria is a semi-autonomous cell organelle, and its functions are not coordinated with the endomembrane system. Ribosome is a non-membranous cell organelle.

Q172.

Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

  • A. Grasshopper
  • B. Cockroach
  • C. House fly ✓
  • D. Fire fly

Solution: Housefly belongs to the family Muscidae, class Insecta and phylum Arthropoda. Fire flies are placed in family Lampyridae of class Insecta. Grasshopper is also an insect, placed in family Acrididae. Cockroach is also an insect, placed in family Blattidae.

Q173.

Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:

  • A. Stratosphere
  • B. Ozone ✓
  • C. Troposphere
  • D. CFCs

Solution: The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured in terms of the Dobson unit. The lowermost layer of atmosphere is called troposphere. CFCs are ozone depleting substances. Ozone found in the upper part of the atmosphere (the stratosphere) is called good ozone.

Q174.

In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?

  • A. 75%
  • B. 25% ✓
  • C. 100%
  • D. 50%

Solution: Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder, so only the homozygous recessive individual is diseased. Crossing two heterozygous parents, Hb$^{A}$Hb$^{S}$ $\times$ Hb$^{A}$Hb$^{S}$, gives Hb$^{A}$Hb$^{A}$ : Hb$^{A}$Hb$^{S}$ : Hb$^{S}$Hb$^{S}$ in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1 Only the Hb$^{S}$Hb$^{S}$ offspring are diseased, which is 25% of the progeny.

Q175.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (a) Vaults (b) IUDs (c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy List-II: (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked (ii) Removal of Vas deferens (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus (iv) Removal of fallopian tube Choose the correct answer from the option given below

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) ✓
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Solution: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barrier methods of contraception for females, which work by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus. Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception in males in which a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum. Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception in females where a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through the vagina. So (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv).

Q176.

Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

  • A. Low pO$_2$, high pCO$_2$, more H$^{+}$, higher temperature
  • B. High pO$_2$, high pCO$_2$, less H$^{+}$, higher temperature
  • C. Low pO$_2$, low pCO$_2$, more H$^{+}$, higher temperature
  • D. High pO$_2$, low pCO$_2$, less H$^{+}$, lower temperature ✓

Solution: The factors favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveolar level are high pO$_2$, low pCO$_2$, less H$^{+}$ concentration and lower temperature. The conditions favourable for the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level are low pO$_2$, high pCO$_2$, high H$^{+}$ concentration and high temperature.

Q177.

Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :

  • A. Vitelline membrane
  • B. Perivitelline space
  • C. Zona pellucida ✓
  • D. Corona radiata

Solution: Zona pellucida has receptors for sperm binding (ZP3 receptors) in mammals. Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged cells of membrana granulosa. Perivitelline space is present in between the vitelline membrane and zona pellucida.

Q178.

Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

  • A. Improve resistance to diseases ✓
  • B. Improve vitamin content
  • C. Improve micronutrient and mineral content
  • D. Improve protein content

Solution: Biofortification improves vitamin content, protein content and micronutrient and mineral content. It does not create resistance in plants against diseases — that is the objective of disease-resistance breeding, not biofortification.

Q179.

Sphincter of oddi is present at:

  • A. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum ✓
  • B. Gastro-oesophageal junction
  • C. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
  • D. Ileo-caecal junction

Solution: The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-pancreatic duct, which is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi. Ileo-caecal valve is present at the junction of ileum and caecum to prevent the backflow of faecal matter into the ileum in humans. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter regulates the opening of oesophagus into stomach.

Q180.

During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?

  • A. Extension
  • B. Denaturation ✓
  • C. Ligation
  • D. Annealing

Solution: High temperature, about 94$^{\circ}$C, is required for the process of denaturation, which is the first step of PCR. Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the help of an enzyme called DNA ligase. Annealing is performed at 50$^{\circ}$-60$^{\circ}$C, which is the second step that can get affected. Addition of nucleotides to the primer, synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the template sequences with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase, is called primer extension/polymerisation.

Q181.

The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2$n$) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G$_1$ phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

  • A. 16
  • B. 4
  • C. 32
  • D. 8 ✓

Solution: In S phase there is duplication of DNA. So the amount of DNA increases, but not the chromosome number. So, if the number of chromosomes at G$_1$ phase is 8 in the fruit fly, then the number of chromosomes will be the same after S phase, that is 8 only.

Q182.

Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?

  • A. tRNA
  • B. rRNA
  • C. siRNA ✓
  • D. mRNA

Solution: siRNA are small interfering RNA, also called silencing RNA. It is a class of double-stranded, non-coding RNA molecules, so it is not required for protein synthesis. mRNA is messenger RNA that carries genetic information provided by DNA. tRNA carries amino acids to the mRNA during translation. rRNA is structural RNA that forms ribosomes, which are involved in translation.

Q183.

Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

  • A. They are involuntary muscles
  • B. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs ✓
  • C. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
  • D. These muscle have no striations

Solution: Option (2) is incorrect, because intercalated discs are found only in cardiac muscle tissue. Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and involuntary in nature and are present in the wall of blood vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary canal etc.

Q184.

If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

  • A. T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
  • B. T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 ✓
  • C. T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
  • D. T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20

Solution: According to Chargaff's rule, for a double stranded DNA, [A] = [T]. Since [A] = 30%, [T] = 30%. Since [C] = [G], $$100 - [\text{A} + \text{T}] = 100 - [30 + 30] = 100 - 60 = 40\%$$ and C = G = 20% each. $$\therefore\ [\text{A}] = 30\%,\ [\text{T}] = 30\%,\ [\text{G}] = 20\%,\ [\text{C}] = 20\%$$

Q185.

Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?

  • A. Synthesis of prostaglandins
  • B. Release of Oxytocin
  • C. Release of Prolactin ✓
  • D. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

Solution: At the end of gestation, the completely developed foetus is expelled out. This process is called parturition, and it is controlled by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Estrogen and progesterone ratio increases as estrogen levels rise significantly. Prostaglandins, which stimulate uterine contractions, are also produced and act on the myometrium. Oxytocin, the main hormone, also called the birth hormone, is released by the maternal pituitary, which brings about strong uterine contractions. Prolactin is a lactation hormone that has no role in initiation of parturition.

Q186.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Filariasis (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia (d) Ringworm List-II: (i) $Haemophilus$ $influenzae$ (ii) $Trichophyton$ (iii) $Wuchereria$ $bancrofti$ (iv) $Entamoeba$ $histolytica$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Solution: Filariasis is the disease caused by $Wuchereria$ $bancrofti$, a filarial worm. Amoebiasis/Amoebic dysentery is caused by a protozoan parasite $Entamoeba$ $histolytica$ in the large intestine of humans. Pneumonia is caused by bacteria like $Streptococcus$ $pneumoniae$ and $Haemophilus$ $influenzae$. Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to genera $Microsporum$, $Trichophyton$ and $Epidermophyton$. So (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Q187.

Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl. (c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) It is the first body segment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  • B. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  • C. (b) and (c) are correct
  • D. (a), (b) and (c) are correct ✓

Solution: The anterior end of the earthworm has a mouth which has a covering called prostomium. Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil. Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in function. The first body segment of earthworm is the peristomium, not the prostomium — so (d) is wrong. Hence (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Q188.

Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • B. (A) is true but (R) is false
  • C. (A) is false but (R) is true
  • D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) ✓

Solution: Altitude sickness can be experienced at high altitude, where the body does not get enough oxygen due to low atmospheric pressure, and causes nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. Hence the correct option is that both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q189.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Scapula (b) Cranium (c) Sternum (d) Vertebral column List-II: (i) Cartilaginous joints (ii) Flat bone (iii) Fibrous joints (iv) Triangular flat bone Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Solution: Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the seventh ribs. Fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones which fuse end-to-end with the help of dense fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures, to form the cranium. Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax. Cartilaginous joints between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column permit limited movements. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Q190.

Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
  • C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true ✓
  • D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Solution: AUG has dual functions: it codes for methionine and it also acts as the initiator codon. AUG does not code for phenylalanine, so Statement I is incorrect. Statement II is true — both AAA and AAG code for lysine, which is an example of the degeneracy of the genetic code.

Q191.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Allen's Rule (b) Physiological adaptation (c) Behavioural adaptation (d) Biochemical adaptation List-II: (i) Kangaroo rat (ii) Desert lizard (iii) Marine fish at depth (iv) Polar seal Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Solution: Polar seal generally has shorter ears and limbs (extremities) to minimise heat loss. This is with reference to Allen's rule. Kangaroo rat exhibits physiological adaptation. Desert lizard shows behavioural adaptation. They lack the physiological ability to cope up with extreme temperature but manage the body temperature by behavioural means. Marine fishes at depth are adapted biochemically to survive in great depths in the ocean. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Q192.

During muscular contraction which of the following events occur? (a) 'H' zone disappears (b) 'A' band widens (c) 'I' band reduces in width (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi. (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
  • B. (b), (c), (d), (e) only
  • C. (b), (d), (e), (a) only
  • D. (a), (c), (d), (e) only ✓

Solution: The length of the A-band is RETAINED during contraction, so statement (b) is wrong. During muscle contraction the following events occur: The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase and hydrolyses the ATP molecule, eventually leading to the formation of a cross bridge. This pulls the actin filament towards the centre of the 'A-band'. The Z-lines attached to these actins are also pulled inwards, thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere. The thin myofilaments move past the thick myofilaments, due to which the H-zone narrows. This reduces the length of the I-band but retains the length of the A-band. The myosin then releases ADP + Pi and goes back to its relaxed state.

Q193.

Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

  • A. Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
  • B. Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
  • C. Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
  • D. Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation ✓

Solution: Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology is used for herd improvement in a short time. Cows are administered hormones with FSH-LIKE activity for superovulation, not LH-like activity — so that statement is not a step in MOET. 8-32 celled embryos are transferred to surrogate mothers. 6-8 eggs are produced per cycle. Cows can be fertilised by artificial insemination.

Q194.

Match List-I with List-II List-I: (a) Adaptive radiation (b) Convergent evolution (c) Divergent evolution (d) Evolution by anthropogenic action List-II: (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird (iv) Darwin Finches Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • C. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓

Solution: Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area, starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography — for example Darwin's finches. Analogous organs, which are not anatomically similar structures though they perform similar functions, are a result of convergent evolution — for example wings of butterfly and of birds. Homologous organs, which are anatomically similar structures but perform different functions according to their needs, are a result of divergent evolution — for example bones of forelimbs in man and whale. Evolution by anthropogenic action means evolution due to human interference, for example antibiotic resistant microbes, herbicide resistant varieties and pesticide resistant varieties. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Q195.

Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'. (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • A. (c) and (d) only
  • B. (b) and (c) only ✓
  • C. (b) and (e) only
  • D. (a) and (b) only

Solution: Lipids having only single bonds are called SATURATED fatty acids, and lipids having one or more C = C double bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids — so (a) is wrong. Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon, not 20 — so (d) is wrong. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon, not 16 — so (e) is wrong. Lecithin is a phospholipid found in the cell membrane. Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl (–OH) group, so it is trihydroxy propane. Hence (b) and (c) only.

Q196.

Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

  • A. Corpus luteum ✓
  • B. Foetus
  • C. Uterus
  • D. Graafian follicle

Solution: The hormone relaxin is produced in the later phase of pregnancy. It is produced by the ovary. Graafian follicle is not formed when the woman is pregnant. Uterus and foetus do not produce relaxin. Relaxin is produced by the corpus luteum present in the ovary. The ruptured Graafian follicle is called corpus luteum, which has endocrine function.

Q197.

The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into

  • A. Parkinson's disease
  • B. Digestive disorder
  • C. Addison's disease
  • D. Dysfunction of Immune system ✓

Solution: Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function. Hence, its deficiency results in the dysfunction of the immune system. Hyposecretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex causes Addison's disease. Parkinson's disease is a long-term degenerative disorder of the central nervous system. Disorders which affect the GIT and associated glands are called digestive disorders.

Q198.

Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

  • A. The pH of histones is slightly acidic ✓
  • B. Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine
  • C. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
  • D. Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules

Solution: Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine, with charged side chains. There are five types of histone proteins, i.e. H$_1$, H$_2$A, H$_2$B, H$_3$ and H$_4$. Four of them occur in pairs to produce a unit of 8 molecules (the histone octamer). The pH of histones is BASIC, not slightly acidic — so that statement is wrong.

Q199.

Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

  • A. Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively ✓
  • B. Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
  • C. Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
  • D. Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively

Solution: Three types of junctions are found in tissues. Tight junctions stop substances from leaking across a tissue. Adhering junctions cement and keep neighbouring cells together. Gap junctions or communication junctions facilitate communication between cells by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. So the two asked for are tight junctions and gap junctions respectively.

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