NEET (UG) 2018 — Code ZZ — Answer Key & Solutions

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Q1.

A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27$^{\circ}$C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27$^{\circ}$C is

  • A. 330 m/s
  • B. 339 m/s ✓
  • C. 300 m/s
  • D. 350 m/s

Solution: $339\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ Two successive resonance lengths differ by half a wavelength: $L_2 - L_1 = \dfrac{\lambda}{2}$. $\lambda = 2(73 - 20)\ \text{cm} = 106\ \text{cm} = 1.06\ \text{m}$ Speed of sound $v = \nu\lambda = 320 \times 1.06\ \text{m s}^{-1} = 339.2\ \text{m s}^{-1} \approx 339\ \text{m s}^{-1}$

Q2.

An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

  • A. Smaller ✓
  • B. 5 times greater
  • C. Equal
  • D. 10 times greater

Solution: Smaller Both particles feel a downward electric force of magnitude $eE$ (the electron in an upward field, the proton in a downward field), so $a = \dfrac{eE}{m}$; gravity is negligible in comparison. $h = \tfrac{1}{2}at^2 \Rightarrow t = \sqrt{\dfrac{2hm}{eE}}$ The charge has the same magnitude for both, so $t \propto \sqrt{m}$. ∴ The electron, being much lighter than the proton, takes a smaller time.

Q3.

A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s$^{2}$ at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

  • A. 2$\pi$ s
  • B. $\pi$ s ✓
  • C. 1 s
  • D. 2 s

Solution: $T = \pi\ \text{s}$ In SHM the magnitude of acceleration is $a = \omega^2 y$. $20 = \omega^2 \times 5 \Rightarrow \omega = 2\ \text{rad s}^{-1}$ $\therefore T = \dfrac{2\pi}{\omega} = \dfrac{2\pi}{2} = \pi\ \text{s}$

Q4.

The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

  • A. Independent of the distance between the plates ✓
  • B. Linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
  • C. Inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
  • D. Proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates

Solution: Independent of the distance between the plates Each plate lies in the field of the other plate, $E = \dfrac{\sigma}{2\varepsilon_0} = \dfrac{Q}{2A\varepsilon_0}$. Force on a plate $F = QE = \dfrac{Q^2}{2A\varepsilon_0}$ For an isolated capacitor Q stays constant, and F contains no separation term, so it does not depend on the distance between the plates.

Q5.

Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

  • A. 40 $\Omega$
  • B. 25 $\Omega$
  • C. 500 $\Omega$
  • D. 250 $\Omega$ ✓

Solution: $250\ \Omega$ Current sensitivity $\dfrac{NAB}{k}$ and voltage sensitivity $\dfrac{NAB}{kR}$, so resistance $R = \dfrac{\text{current sensitivity}}{\text{voltage sensitivity}}$. $R = \dfrac{5\ \text{div mA}^{-1}}{20\ \text{div V}^{-1}} = \dfrac{5000\ \text{div A}^{-1}}{20\ \text{div V}^{-1}} = 250\ \Omega$

Q6.

A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

  • A. The current source ✓
  • B. The magnetic field
  • C. The induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field
  • D. The lattice structure of the material of the rod

Solution: The current source A magnetic field does no work by itself; the energy is supplied by the source that drives the current in the electromagnet. This energy of the current source appears as the gravitational potential energy of the rod.

Q7.

An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 $\mu$F and a resistor 50 $\Omega$ are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

  • A. 0.79 W ✓
  • B. 0.43 W
  • C. 1.13 W
  • D. 2.74 W

Solution: 0.79 W Reactances: $X_L = \omega L = 314 \times 0.02 = 6.28\ \Omega$ and $X_C = \dfrac{1}{\omega C} = \dfrac{1}{314 \times 10^{-4}} = 31.85\ \Omega$. Impedance $Z = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_C - X_L)^2} = \sqrt{50^2 + 25.57^2}\ \Omega \approx 56\ \Omega$ Power is lost only in the resistor: $P = I_{\text{rms}}^2 R = \left(\dfrac{V_{\text{rms}}}{Z}\right)^2 R$ $P = \left(\dfrac{10}{\sqrt{2} \times 56}\right)^2 \times 50\ \text{W} = 0.79\ \text{W}$

Q8.

A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m$^{-1}$ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30$^{\circ}$ with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

  • A. 7.14 A
  • B. 5.98 A
  • C. 11.32 A ✓
  • D. 14.76 A

Solution: 11.32 A The field is vertical, so the magnetic force $IlB$ on the rod is horizontal. For equilibrium along the incline: $mg\sin 30^\circ = IlB\cos 30^\circ$ $I = \dfrac{m}{l}\cdot\dfrac{g\tan 30^\circ}{B} = \dfrac{0.5 \times 9.8}{0.25 \times \sqrt{3}}\ \text{A} = 11.32\ \text{A}$

Q9.

A carbon resistor of (47 $\pm$ 4.7) k$\Omega$ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

  • A. Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
  • B. Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver ✓
  • C. Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
  • D. Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

Solution: Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver $(47 \pm 4.7)\ \text{k}\Omega = 47 \times 10^3\ \Omega \pm 10\%$ First digit 4 is yellow, second digit 7 is violet, the multiplier $10^3$ is orange and the ±10% tolerance is silver.

Q10.

A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of 'n' is

  • A. 10 ✓
  • B. 11
  • C. 9
  • D. 20

Solution: $n = 10$ In series: $I = \dfrac{E}{nR + R}$ In parallel: $10I = \dfrac{E}{\dfrac{R}{n} + R}$ Dividing: $10 = \dfrac{(n + 1)R}{\left(\dfrac{1}{n} + 1\right)R} = n$ $\therefore n = 10$

Q11.

A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

  • A. Graph (1) ✓
  • B. Graph (2)
  • C. Graph (3)
  • D. Graph (4)

Solution: Graph (1): I stays constant as n changes With n identical cells in series and the terminals short-circuited, the only resistance in the circuit is the total internal resistance $nr$. $I = \dfrac{n\varepsilon}{nr} = \dfrac{\varepsilon}{r}$ ∴ I is independent of n, so the graph is a horizontal straight line.

Q12.

In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength $\lambda$ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20$^{\circ}$. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21$^{\circ}$ (with same $\lambda$ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

  • A. 1.8 mm
  • B. 1.9 mm ✓
  • C. 1.7 mm
  • D. 2.1 mm

Solution: 1.9 mm Angular fringe width $\theta = \dfrac{\lambda}{d}$, so for the same λ, $\theta \propto \dfrac{1}{d}$. $\dfrac{d_2}{d_1} = \dfrac{\theta_1}{\theta_2} \Rightarrow d_2 = 2\ \text{mm} \times \dfrac{0.20}{0.21}$ $\therefore d_2 = 1.9\ \text{mm}$

Q13.

An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

  • A. Small focal length and large diameter
  • B. Large focal length and small diameter
  • C. Small focal length and small diameter
  • D. Large focal length and large diameter ✓

Solution: Large focal length and large diameter Angular magnification $m = \dfrac{f_o}{f_e}$ is large when the objective has a large focal length. The smallest angle it can resolve is $\Delta\theta = \dfrac{1.22\lambda}{D}$, so resolution is high when the objective has a large diameter D.

Q14.

Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index '$\mu$'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

  • A. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence
  • B. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence ✓
  • C. $i = \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1}{\mu}\right)$
  • D. $i = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1}{\mu}\right)$

Solution: Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence Reflected and refracted rays at right angles means incidence at the Brewster angle, where the reflected light is plane polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence. (A) At the Brewster angle the component with the electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence is not reflected at all. (C) Brewster's law gives $\tan i = \mu$, so $i = \tan^{-1}\mu$, not $\tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1}{\mu}\right)$. (D) $\sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1}{\mu}\right)$ is the critical angle for total internal reflection, not the Brewster angle.

Q15.

An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity $\vec{V} = V\hat{i}$. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

  • A. –z direction
  • B. +z direction ✓
  • C. –x direction
  • D. –y direction

Solution: +z direction In an em wave, $\vec{E} \times \vec{B}$ points along the direction of propagation. $(E\hat{j}) \times (B\hat{k}) = EB\,\hat{i}$, which matches $\vec{V} = V\hat{i}$. ∴ The magnetic field oscillates along the +z direction.

Q16.

The refractive index of the material of a prism is $\sqrt{2}$ and the angle of the prism is 30$^{\circ}$. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

  • A. 60$^{\circ}$
  • B. 45$^{\circ}$ ✓
  • C. Zero
  • D. 30$^{\circ}$

Solution: $45^\circ$ To retrace its path, the ray must fall normally on the silvered face. The angle of refraction at the first face then equals the prism angle: $r = A = 30^\circ$. Snell's law: $\sin i = \mu\sin r = \sqrt{2} \times \tfrac{1}{2} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ $\therefore i = 45^\circ$

Q17.

An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

  • A. 30 cm away from the mirror
  • B. 36 cm away from the mirror ✓
  • C. 36 cm towards the mirror
  • D. 30 cm towards the mirror

Solution: 36 cm away from the mirror Mirror formula: $\dfrac{1}{v} + \dfrac{1}{u} = \dfrac{1}{f}$, with $f = -15$ cm. For $u = -40$ cm: $\dfrac{1}{v_1} = -\dfrac{1}{15} + \dfrac{1}{40} \Rightarrow v_1 = -24\ \text{cm}$ For $u = -20$ cm: $\dfrac{1}{v_2} = -\dfrac{1}{15} + \dfrac{1}{20} \Rightarrow v_2 = -60\ \text{cm}$ ∴ The image moves $60 - 24 = 36$ cm away from the mirror.

Q18.

The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

  • A. 0.138 H
  • B. 138.88 H
  • C. 13.89 H ✓
  • D. 1.389 H

Solution: 13.89 H Energy stored in an inductor $U = \tfrac{1}{2}LI^2$ $L = \dfrac{2U}{I^2} = \dfrac{2 \times 25 \times 10^{-3}}{(60 \times 10^{-3})^2}\ \text{H} = \dfrac{50 \times 10^{-3}}{3.6 \times 10^{-3}}\ \text{H}$ $\therefore L = 13.89\ \text{H}$

Q19.

For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

  • A. 20 ✓
  • B. 10
  • C. 15
  • D. 30

Solution: 20 minutes Nuclei remaining $N = 600 - 450 = 150$, so $\dfrac{N}{N_0} = \dfrac{150}{600} = \dfrac{1}{4} = \left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)^2$. ∴ Two half-lives have passed: $t = 2T_{1/2} = 2 \times 10\ \text{min} = 20\ \text{min}$

Q20.

The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

  • A. 1 : 1
  • B. 1 : –1 ✓
  • C. 1 : –2
  • D. 2 : –1

Solution: 1 : –1 In a Bohr orbit, kinetic energy $K = \dfrac{e^2}{8\pi\varepsilon_0 r}$ and total energy $E = -\dfrac{e^2}{8\pi\varepsilon_0 r}$, so $K = -E$. $\therefore K : E = 1 : -1$

Q21.

An electron of mass m with an initial velocity $\vec{V} = V_0\hat{i}$ (V$_0$ > 0) enters an electric field $\vec{E} = -E_0\hat{i}$ (E$_0$ = constant > 0) at t = 0. If $\lambda_0$ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

  • A. $\dfrac{\lambda_0}{\left(1 + \dfrac{eE_0}{mV_0}t\right)}$ ✓
  • B. $\lambda_0\left(1 + \dfrac{eE_0}{mV_0}t\right)$
  • C. $\lambda_0$
  • D. $\lambda_0 t$

Solution: $\lambda = \dfrac{\lambda_0}{1 + \dfrac{eE_0}{mV_0}t}$ Force on the electron $\vec{F} = -e\vec{E} = eE_0\hat{i}$, along its motion, so it speeds up with $a = \dfrac{eE_0}{m}$. Velocity at time t: $V = V_0 + \dfrac{eE_0}{m}t$ de Broglie wavelength $\lambda = \dfrac{h}{mV} = \dfrac{h}{mV_0\left(1 + \dfrac{eE_0}{mV_0}t\right)}$ $\therefore \lambda = \dfrac{\lambda_0}{1 + \dfrac{eE_0}{mV_0}t}$, since $\lambda_0 = \dfrac{h}{mV_0}$

Q22.

When the light of frequency 2$\nu_0$ (where $\nu_0$ is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v$_1$. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5$\nu_0$, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v$_2$. The ratio of v$_1$ to v$_2$ is

  • A. 1 : 2 ✓
  • B. 1 : 4
  • C. 2 : 1
  • D. 4 : 1

Solution: 1 : 2 Einstein's photoelectric equation: $h\nu = h\nu_0 + \tfrac{1}{2}mv_{\max}^2$ At $2\nu_0$: $\tfrac{1}{2}mv_1^2 = 2h\nu_0 - h\nu_0 = h\nu_0$ At $5\nu_0$: $\tfrac{1}{2}mv_2^2 = 5h\nu_0 - h\nu_0 = 4h\nu_0$ $\dfrac{v_1^2}{v_2^2} = \dfrac{1}{4} \Rightarrow v_1 : v_2 = 1 : 2$

Q23.

In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

  • A. $\overline{A \cdot B}$
  • B. $A \cdot \overline{B} + \overline{A} \cdot B$ ✓
  • C. $\overline{A + B}$
  • D. $\overline{A \cdot B} + A \cdot B$

Solution: $Y = A\cdot\overline{B} + \overline{A}\cdot B$ The upper AND gate receives A and $\overline{B}$, so its output is $A\cdot\overline{B}$. The lower AND gate receives $\overline{A}$ and B, so its output is $\overline{A}\cdot B$. Both outputs feed an OR gate: $Y = A\cdot\overline{B} + \overline{A}\cdot B$

Q24.

In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage V$_i$ is 20 V, V$_{BE}$ = 0 and V$_{CE}$ = 0. The values of I$_B$, I$_C$ and $\beta$ are given by

  • A. I$_B$ = 40 $\mu$A, I$_C$ = 10 mA, $\beta$ = 250
  • B. I$_B$ = 25 $\mu$A, I$_C$ = 5 mA, $\beta$ = 200
  • C. I$_B$ = 40 $\mu$A, I$_C$ = 5 mA, $\beta$ = 125 ✓
  • D. I$_B$ = 20 $\mu$A, I$_C$ = 5 mA, $\beta$ = 250

Solution: $I_B = 40\ \mu\text{A}$, $I_C = 5\ \text{mA}$, $\beta = 125$ With $V_{CE} = 0$, the whole 20 V is across $R_C$: $I_C = \dfrac{20}{4 \times 10^3}\ \text{A} = 5\ \text{mA}$ With $V_{BE} = 0$, $V_i = I_BR_B$: $I_B = \dfrac{20}{500 \times 10^3}\ \text{A} = 40\ \mu\text{A}$ Current gain $\beta = \dfrac{I_C}{I_B} = \dfrac{5 \times 10^{-3}}{40 \times 10^{-6}} = 125$

Q25.

In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

  • A. Affects only reverse resistance
  • B. Affects only forward resistance
  • C. Affects the overall V - I characteristics of p-n junction ✓
  • D. Does not affect resistance of p-n junction

Solution: It affects the overall V–I characteristics of the p-n junction Heating increases the number of thermally generated electron–hole pairs, which changes the resistance of the junction. Both the forward bias and the reverse bias characteristics change, so the whole V–I curve is affected.

Q26.

A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

  • A. Angular velocity
  • B. Moment of inertia
  • C. Angular momentum ✓
  • D. Rotational kinetic energy

Solution: Angular momentum No external torque acts on the sphere in free space, so its angular momentum $L = I\omega$ is conserved. (A) As I increases, ω decreases to keep $I\omega$ constant. (B) $I = \tfrac{2}{5}MR^2$ increases as the radius increases. (D) Rotational kinetic energy $\dfrac{L^2}{2I}$ decreases as I increases.

Q27.

The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are K$_A$, K$_B$ and K$_C$, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

  • A. K$_A$ < K$_B$ < K$_C$
  • B. K$_A$ > K$_B$ > K$_C$ ✓
  • C. K$_B$ > K$_A$ > K$_C$
  • D. K$_B$ < K$_A$ < K$_C$

Solution: $K_A > K_B > K_C$ A is the perihelion and C is the aphelion; B lies on the perpendicular to AC through the Sun. By conservation of angular momentum the planet moves fastest at perihelion and slowest at aphelion: $v_A > v_B > v_C$ $\therefore K_A > K_B > K_C$

Q28.

If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

  • A. Raindrops will fall faster
  • B. Walking on the ground would become more difficult
  • C. 'g' on the Earth will not change ✓
  • D. Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease

Solution: 'g' on the Earth will not change (the incorrect statement) $g = \dfrac{GM_e}{R_e^2}$ depends on G and the mass of the Earth, not of the Sun, so with G ten times larger g also becomes ten times larger. (A) With larger g, raindrops fall faster; this statement is correct. (B) Weight mg becomes larger, so walking is more difficult; this statement is correct. (D) $T = 2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{l}{g}}$ decreases as g increases; this statement is correct.

Q29.

A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (K$_t$) as well as rotational kinetic energy (K$_r$) simultaneously. The ratio K$_t$ : (K$_t$ + K$_r$) for the sphere is

  • A. 7 : 10
  • B. 5 : 7 ✓
  • C. 2 : 5
  • D. 10 : 7

Solution: 5 : 7 For rolling, $v = r\omega$, and for a solid sphere $I = \tfrac{2}{5}mr^2$. $K_r = \tfrac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = \tfrac{1}{5}mv^2$, so $K_t + K_r = \tfrac{1}{2}mv^2 + \tfrac{1}{5}mv^2 = \tfrac{7}{10}mv^2$ $\dfrac{K_t}{K_t + K_r} = \dfrac{1/2}{7/10} = \dfrac{5}{7}$

Q30.

A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

  • A. r$^{3}$
  • B. r$^{2}$
  • C. r$^{4}$
  • D. r$^{5}$ ✓

Solution: $r^5$ At terminal velocity, heat is produced at the rate of work done against the viscous force: $P = Fv_T = 6\pi\eta r v_T^2$ Terminal velocity $v_T = \dfrac{2r^2(\rho - \sigma)g}{9\eta}$, so $v_T \propto r^2$. $\therefore P \propto r \times (r^2)^2 = r^5$

Q31.

A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100$^{\circ}$C and normal pressure ($1.013 \times 10^{5}$ Nm$^{-2}$) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100$^{\circ}$C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

  • A. 104.3 J
  • B. 208.7 J ✓
  • C. 84.5 J
  • D. 42.2 J

Solution: 208.7 J First law of thermodynamics: $\Delta Q = \Delta U + W$ Heat supplied $\Delta Q = 54 \times 4.18\ \text{J} = 225.72\ \text{J}$ Work done by the steam $W = P\Delta V = 1.013 \times 10^5 \times 167.1 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{J} = 16.93\ \text{J}$ (the volume of the water itself is negligible) $\therefore \Delta U = 225.72\ \text{J} - 16.93\ \text{J} \approx 208.8\ \text{J}$, the nearest choice being 208.7 J

Q32.

Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by $\Delta l$ on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?

  • A. 9 F ✓
  • B. 6 F
  • C. F
  • D. 4 F

Solution: 9F Same volume: $A l_1 = 3A l_2$, so $l_2 = \dfrac{l_1}{3}$. From Young's modulus, extension $\Delta l = \dfrac{Fl}{AY}$. Equal extensions: $\dfrac{F l_1}{AY} = \dfrac{F'(l_1/3)}{3AY} = \dfrac{F' l_1}{9AY}$ $\therefore F' = 9F$

Q33.

The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, $\lambda_0$. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength $\dfrac{3}{4}\lambda_0$, the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

  • A. $\dfrac{3}{4}$
  • B. $\dfrac{4}{3}$
  • C. $\dfrac{81}{256}$
  • D. $\dfrac{256}{81}$ ✓

Solution: $n = \dfrac{256}{81}$ Wien's displacement law: $\lambda_m T = \text{constant}$, so $T' = \dfrac{\lambda_0}{\tfrac{3}{4}\lambda_0}\,T = \dfrac{4}{3}T$. Stefan's law: $P \propto T^4$ $\therefore n = \left(\dfrac{4}{3}\right)^4 = \dfrac{256}{81}$

Q34.

At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? (Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = $2.76 \times 10^{-26}$ kg, Boltzmann's constant k$_B$ = $1.38 \times 10^{-23}$ JK$^{-1}$)

  • A. $2.508 \times 10^{4}$ K
  • B. $8.360 \times 10^{4}$ K ✓
  • C. $1.254 \times 10^{4}$ K
  • D. $5.016 \times 10^{4}$ K

Solution: $8.360 \times 10^4\ \text{K}$ Escape speed from the Earth $v_e = 11.2\ \text{km s}^{-1} = 11200\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ Setting $v_{\text{rms}} = \sqrt{\dfrac{3k_BT}{m}} = v_e$ gives $T = \dfrac{mv_e^2}{3k_B}$ $T = \dfrac{2.76 \times 10^{-26} \times (11200)^2}{3 \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23}}\ \text{K} \approx 8.36 \times 10^4\ \text{K}$

Q35.

The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

  • A. $\dfrac{2}{5}$ ✓
  • B. $\dfrac{2}{3}$
  • C. $\dfrac{2}{7}$
  • D. $\dfrac{1}{3}$

Solution: $\dfrac{2}{5}$ The V–T graph is a straight line through the origin, so $\dfrac{V}{T}$ is constant and the process is isobaric. At constant pressure, work done $W = P\Delta V = nR\Delta T$ For a monatomic gas, heat absorbed $Q = nC_p\Delta T = \tfrac{5}{2}nR\Delta T$ $\therefore \dfrac{W}{Q} = \dfrac{nR\Delta T}{\tfrac{5}{2}nR\Delta T} = \dfrac{2}{5}$

Q36.

The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

  • A. 13.2 cm ✓
  • B. 8 cm
  • C. 16 cm
  • D. 12.5 cm

Solution: 13.2 cm Third harmonic of a closed pipe of length $l$: $\nu = \dfrac{3v}{4l}$ Fundamental of an open pipe of length $l'$: $\nu = \dfrac{v}{2l'}$ $\dfrac{3v}{4l} = \dfrac{v}{2l'} \Rightarrow l' = \dfrac{2l}{3}$ $\therefore l' = \dfrac{2 \times 20}{3}\ \text{cm} \approx 13.3\ \text{cm}$, the nearest choice being 13.2 cm

Q37.

The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

  • A. 26.8% ✓
  • B. 20%
  • C. 12.5%
  • D. 6.25%

Solution: 26.8% Efficiency of an ideal (Carnot) engine $\eta = 1 - \dfrac{T_2}{T_1}$, with source $T_1 = 373$ K and sink $T_2 = 273$ K. $\eta = 1 - \dfrac{273}{373} = \dfrac{100}{373} = 0.268$ ∴ η = 26.8%

Q38.

A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

  • A. $\dfrac{3}{2}D$
  • B. $D$
  • C. $\dfrac{5}{4}D$ ✓
  • D. $\dfrac{7}{5}D$

Solution: $h = \dfrac{5}{4}D$ The track is frictionless, so mechanical energy is conserved: $mgh = \tfrac{1}{2}mv_L^2$, where $v_L$ is the speed at the lowest point of the circle. To just complete the vertical circle, $v_L = \sqrt{5gR}$ $h = \dfrac{v_L^2}{2g} = \dfrac{5R}{2}$ $\therefore h = \dfrac{5}{4}D$, since $R = \dfrac{D}{2}$

Q39.

Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed $\omega$ about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

  • A. W$_C$ > W$_B$ > W$_A$ ✓
  • B. W$_A$ > W$_B$ > W$_C$
  • C. W$_A$ > W$_C$ > W$_B$
  • D. W$_B$ > W$_A$ > W$_C$

Solution: $W_C > W_B > W_A$ The work needed to stop each body equals its rotational kinetic energy $\tfrac{1}{2}I\omega^2$, so for the same ω, $W \propto I$. $I_A : I_B : I_C = \tfrac{2}{5}MR^2 : \tfrac{1}{2}MR^2 : MR^2 = 4 : 5 : 10$ $\therefore W_C > W_B > W_A$

Q40.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • A. Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
  • B. Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.
  • C. Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length. ✓
  • D. Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

Solution: Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length (the incorrect statement) $\mu = \dfrac{f}{N}$ is a ratio of two forces, so the coefficient of sliding friction is dimensionless. (A) Rolling friction is much smaller than sliding friction; this statement is correct. (B) Limiting static friction $f_s^{\max} = \mu_s N$ is proportional to the normal reaction; this statement is correct. (D) Friction opposes the relative motion between surfaces in contact; this statement is correct.

Q41.

A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

  • A. 0.5
  • B. 0.25 ✓
  • C. 0.4
  • D. 0.8

Solution: 0.25 Conservation of linear momentum: $mv + 0 = 0 + 4mv' \Rightarrow v' = \dfrac{v}{4}$ $e = \dfrac{\text{relative velocity of separation}}{\text{relative velocity of approach}} = \dfrac{v/4 - 0}{v - 0}$ $\therefore e = \dfrac{1}{4} = 0.25$

Q42.

A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination $\theta$ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and $\theta$ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

  • A. $a = \dfrac{g}{\text{cosec}\,\theta}$
  • B. $a = \dfrac{g}{\sin\theta}$
  • C. $a = g\tan\theta$ ✓
  • D. $a = g\cos\theta$

Solution: $a = g\tan\theta$ In the frame of the wedge, a pseudo force ma acts on the block towards the left. Balancing the forces horizontally and vertically: $N\sin\theta = ma$ and $N\cos\theta = mg$ Dividing: $\tan\theta = \dfrac{a}{g} \Rightarrow a = g\tan\theta$

Q43.

A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field $\vec{E}$. Due to the force $q\vec{E}$, its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

  • A. 2 m/s, 4 m/s
  • B. 1 m/s, 3 m/s ✓
  • C. 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
  • D. 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

Solution: 1 m/s, 3 m/s Acceleration $a = \dfrac{6 - 0}{1}\ \text{m s}^{-2} = 6\ \text{m s}^{-2}$; after the field is reversed, the same magnitude acts backwards. 0 to 1 s: $s_1 = \tfrac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 1^2 = 3\ \text{m}$; 1 to 2 s, the car slows from 6 m/s to rest: $s_2 = 6 \times 1 - \tfrac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 1^2 = 3\ \text{m}$ 2 to 3 s, the car moves back: $s_3 = -\tfrac{1}{2} \times 6 \times 1^2 = -3\ \text{m}$ Average velocity $= \dfrac{3 + 3 - 3}{3}\ \text{m s}^{-1} = 1\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ Average speed $= \dfrac{3 + 3 + 3}{3}\ \text{m s}^{-1} = 3\ \text{m s}^{-1}$

Q44.

The moment of the force, $\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}$ at (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by

  • A. $-8\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} - 7\hat{k}$
  • B. $-4\hat{i} - \hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$
  • C. $-7\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$ ✓
  • D. $-7\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}$

Solution: $-7\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$ Moment of a force about a point: $\vec{\tau} = (\vec{r} - \vec{r}_0) \times \vec{F}$ $\vec{r} - \vec{r}_0 = (2 - 2)\hat{i} + (0 + 2)\hat{j} + (-3 + 2)\hat{k} = 2\hat{j} - \hat{k}$ $\vec{\tau} = (2\hat{j} - \hat{k}) \times (4\hat{i} + 5\hat{j} - 6\hat{k})$ $\vec{\tau} = [2(-6) - (-1)(5)]\hat{i} - [0(-6) - (-1)(4)]\hat{j} + [0(5) - 2(4)]\hat{k} = -7\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} - 8\hat{k}$

Q45.

A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

  • A. 0.521 cm
  • B. 0.525 cm
  • C. 0.529 cm ✓
  • D. 0.053 cm

Solution: 0.529 cm Correct reading = observed reading − zero error Observed reading $= \text{MSR} + \text{CSR} \times \text{LC} = 0.5\ \text{cm} + 25 \times 0.001\ \text{cm} = 0.525\ \text{cm}$ ∴ Diameter $= 0.525\ \text{cm} - (-0.004\ \text{cm}) = 0.529\ \text{cm}$

Q46.

The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

  • A. In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
  • B. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
  • C. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules. ✓
  • D. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

Solution: Spermiogenesis forms spermatozoa; spermiation releases them from Sertoli cells into the cavity of the seminiferous tubules Spermiogenesis is the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa; spermiation is the release of sperms from the Sertoli cells into the cavity of the seminiferous tubules. (A) Spermatids are formed by the second meiotic division of secondary spermatocytes, not by spermiogenesis. (B) Spermiation releases sperms; it does not form spermatids. (D) The two processes are swapped.

Q47.

The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

  • A. ectoderm and mesoderm ✓
  • B. endoderm and mesoderm
  • C. ectoderm and endoderm
  • D. mesoderm and trophoblast

Solution: Ectoderm and mesoderm The amnion is formed from ectoderm on the inner side and mesoderm on the outer side.

Q48.

The contraceptive 'SAHELI'

  • A. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted. ✓
  • B. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
  • C. is a post-coital contraceptive.
  • D. is an IUD.

Solution: It blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantation of the egg Saheli (centchroman) is a non-steroidal, once-a-week oral pill that blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, so the egg cannot implant. (B) It does not raise estrogen or stop ovulation; it acts on the estrogen receptors of the uterus. (C) It is taken weekly, not as a post-coital (emergency) contraceptive. (D) It is an oral pill, not an intrauterine device.

Q49.

Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

  • A. hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
  • B. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
  • C. hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
  • D. hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens ✓

Solution: hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens The placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and secretes hCG, hPL, estrogens and progestogens. (A) Prolactin is secreted by the anterior pituitary, not the placenta. (B) Relaxin is secreted by the ovary late in pregnancy, and oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary. (C) Glucocorticoids are secreted by the adrenal cortex.

Q50.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I: (a) Proliferative Phase (b) Secretory Phase (c) Menstruation Column II: (i) Breakdown of endometrial lining (ii) Follicular Phase (iii) Luteal Phase

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) ✓

Solution: (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (a) Proliferative phase is the follicular phase (ii): follicles grow and their estrogen regenerates the endometrium. (b) Secretory phase is the luteal phase (iii): progesterone from the corpus luteum maintains the endometrium. (c) Menstruation is the breakdown of the endometrial lining (i), when progesterone falls as the corpus luteum degenerates.

Q51.

All of the following are part of an operon except

  • A. an operator
  • B. structural genes
  • C. a promoter
  • D. an enhancer ✓

Solution: An enhancer (not part of an operon) An operon is a prokaryotic unit of a promoter, an operator and structural genes; enhancers are regulatory sequences of eukaryotic genes. (A) The operator is the site where the repressor binds; it is part of the operon. (B) Structural genes, such as z, y and a of the lac operon, code for the enzymes; they are part of the operon. (C) The promoter is where RNA polymerase binds; it is part of the operon.

Q52.

A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

  • A. Only daughters
  • B. Only sons
  • C. Both sons and daughters ✓
  • D. Only grandchildren

Solution: Both sons and daughters A mother passes one of her two X chromosomes to every child, son or daughter, so either can receive the affected X. A son who receives it is affected even if the condition is recessive, as he has only one X chromosome.

Q53.

According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

  • A. Multiple step mutations
  • B. Saltation ✓
  • C. Minor mutations
  • D. Phenotypic variations

Solution: Saltation (single-step large mutation) Hugo de Vries, working on evening primrose, held that evolution is caused by sudden, large, single-step mutations, which he called saltation.

Q54.

AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

  • A. AGGUAUCGCAU ✓
  • B. UGGTUTCGCAT
  • C. UCCAUAGCGUA
  • D. ACCUAUGCGAU

Solution: AGGUAUCGCAU mRNA has the same sequence as the coding strand, with uracil (U) in place of thymine (T), so AGGTATCGCAT becomes AGGUAUCGCAU.

Q55.

Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :

  • A. Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
  • B. Heart of bat, man and cheetah
  • C. Eye of octopus, bat and man ✓
  • D. Brain of bat, man and cheetah

Solution: Eye of octopus, bat and man (the incorrect statement) The eyes of the octopus (a mollusc) and of mammals are analogous organs: similar function but different structure and origin, a result of convergent evolution. (A) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah are homologous: the same basic bone structure adapted to different functions. (B) The hearts of these vertebrates are homologous organs. (D) The brains of these vertebrates are homologous organs.

Q56.

Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

  • A. Vitamin D
  • B. Vitamin A
  • C. Vitamin E
  • D. Vitamin B$_{12}$ ✓

Solution: Vitamin B₁₂ The lactic acid bacteria (LAB) that turn milk into curd also improve its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B₁₂.

Q57.

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

  • A. Psoriasis
  • B. Rheumatoid arthritis
  • C. Vitiligo
  • D. Alzheimer's disease ✓

Solution: Alzheimer's disease (not an autoimmune disease) Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative brain disorder associated with a fall in the neurotransmitter acetylcholine; it is not caused by the immune system attacking the body's own cells. (A) Psoriasis is an autoimmune disease of the skin, with thick red scaly patches. (B) In rheumatoid arthritis the immune system attacks the synovial membrane and cartilage of the joints. (C) Vitiligo is an autoimmune loss of skin pigment cells, causing white patches.

Q58.

The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

  • A. Homology ✓
  • B. Analogy
  • C. Adaptive radiation
  • D. Convergent evolution

Solution: Homology Forelimbs of vertebrates share the same basic bone structure but perform different functions, so they are homologous organs, a result of divergent evolution.

Q59.

Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans? (a) Dominance (b) Co-dominance (c) Multiple allele (d) Incomplete dominance (e) Polygenic inheritance

  • A. (b), (c) and (e)
  • B. (a), (b) and (c) ✓
  • C. (a), (c) and (e)
  • D. (b), (d) and (e)

Solution: Dominance, co-dominance and multiple alleles: (a), (b) and (c) $I^A$ and $I^B$ are each dominant over $i$ ($I^Ai$ gives group A, $I^Bi$ gives group B): dominance. $I^AI^B$ expresses both A and B sugars (group AB): co-dominance. The single gene I has three alleles, $I^A$, $I^B$ and $i$: multiple alleles. Blood groups show neither incomplete dominance nor polygenic inheritance, as one gene controls them.

Q60.

In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

  • A. Elephantiasis ✓
  • B. Ascariasis
  • C. Amoebiasis
  • D. Ringworm disease

Solution: Elephantiasis The filarial worm Wuchereria, transmitted by the bite of the female Culex mosquito, causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessels: filariasis or elephantiasis.

Q61.

All of the following are included in '$ex$-$situ$ conservation' except

  • A. Wildlife safari parks
  • B. Sacred groves ✓
  • C. Seed banks
  • D. Botanical gardens

Solution: Sacred groves (in-situ, not ex-situ, conservation) Sacred groves are forest patches protected by tribal communities in their natural setting, so they are in-situ conservation. (A) Wildlife safari parks protect animals outside their natural habitat: ex-situ. (C) Seed banks store seeds away from the natural habitat: ex-situ. (D) Botanical gardens grow plants outside their natural habitat: ex-situ.

Q62.

Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug "Smack"?

  • A. Flowers
  • B. Latex ✓
  • C. Leaves
  • D. Roots

Solution: Latex Smack (heroin) is diacetylmorphine, made by acetylation of morphine, which is extracted from the latex of the poppy plant, Papaver somniferum.

Q63.

In a growing population of a country,

  • A. pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals. ✓
  • B. reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
  • C. pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
  • D. reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.

Solution: Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals A growing (expanding) population has more young, pre-reproductive individuals than reproductive ones, so its age pyramid is broad at the base. (B) Fewer reproductive than post-reproductive individuals means an ageing population, not a growing one. (C) Fewer pre-reproductive than reproductive individuals gives the urn-shaped pyramid of a declining population. (D) Roughly equal numbers give the bell-shaped pyramid of a stable population.

Q64.

Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?

  • A. Commensalism
  • B. Mutualism
  • C. Amensalism ✓
  • D. Parasitism

Solution: Amensalism (antibiosis) In amensalism one species is harmed and the other is unaffected: an antibiotic-producing microbe such as Penicillium inhibits other microbes such as Staphylococcus with no effect on itself.

Q65.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column-I: (a) Eutrophication (b) Sanitary landfill (c) Snow blindness (d) Jhum cultivation Column-II: (i) UV-B radiation (ii) Deforestation (iii) Nutrient enrichment (iv) Waste disposal

  • A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓

Solution: (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (a) Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water (iii). (b) Sanitary landfills are used for disposal of solid wastes (iv). (c) Snow blindness is inflammation of the cornea caused by a high dose of UV-B radiation (i). (d) Jhum cultivation (slash and burn agriculture) clears forest, causing deforestation (ii).

Q66.

Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

  • A. Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface ✓
  • B. Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
  • C. Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
  • D. Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

Solution: Inflammation of bronchioles; decreased respiratory surface Asthma is difficulty in breathing, with wheezing, due to inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which the alveolar walls are damaged, so the respiratory surface decreases.

Q67.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I: (a) Tricuspid valve (b) Bicuspid valve (c) Semilunar valve Column II: (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) ✓
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)

Solution: (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) (a) The tricuspid valve guards the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle (iii). (b) The bicuspid (mitral) valve guards the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle (i). (c) Semilunar valves guard the openings of the ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta (ii).

Q68.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: (a) Tidal volume (b) Inspiratory Reserve volume (c) Expiratory Reserve volume (d) Residual volume Column II: (i) 2500 – 3000 mL (ii) 1100 – 1200 mL (iii) 500 – 550 mL (iv) 1000 – 1100 mL

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) ✓
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Solution: (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (a) Tidal volume, the air breathed in or out in a normal breath, is about 500 mL (iii). (b) Inspiratory reserve volume, the extra air taken in by a forcible inspiration, is 2500–3000 mL (i). (c) Expiratory reserve volume, the extra air expelled by a forcible expiration, is 1000–1100 mL (iv). (d) Residual volume, the air left in the lungs after a forcible expiration, is 1100–1200 mL (ii).

Q69.

Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

  • A. Epinephrine ✓
  • B. Ecdysone
  • C. Estriol
  • D. Estradiol

Solution: Epinephrine Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a catecholamine derived from the amino acid tyrosine. (B) Ecdysone, the insect moulting hormone, is a steroid. (C) Estriol is a steroid hormone (an estrogen). (D) Estradiol is a steroid hormone (an estrogen).

Q70.

Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its functions?

  • A. Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
  • B. Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement. ✓
  • C. Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
  • D. Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

Solution: Limbic system: fibre tracts that interconnect brain regions; controls movement (the incorrect statement) The limbic system (amygdala, hippocampus and related deep structures), with the hypothalamus, regulates sexual behaviour, emotional reactions and motivation; it does not control movement. (A) The medulla controls respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions; correct pair. (C) The corpus callosum is a tract of nerve fibres connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres; correct pair. (D) The hypothalamus makes releasing hormones and controls body temperature, hunger and thirst; correct pair.

Q71.

The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

  • A. ligaments attached to the ciliary body ✓
  • B. ligaments attached to the iris
  • C. smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
  • D. smooth muscles attached to the iris

Solution: Ligaments attached to the ciliary body The lens is held in place by suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary body.

Q72.

Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

  • A. Aldosterone and Prolactin
  • B. Progesterone and Aldosterone
  • C. Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
  • D. Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone ✓

Solution: Estrogen and parathyroid hormone Osteoporosis is loss of bone mass; a fall in estrogen, which normally protects bone, is a common cause in older women. Parathyroid hormone raises blood Ca²⁺ by demineralising bone, so its excess also weakens bone.

Q73.

Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

  • A. Chief cells
  • B. Mucous cells
  • C. Parietal cells ✓
  • D. Goblet cells

Solution: Parietal cells Parietal (oxyntic) cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is essential for absorption of vitamin B₁₂, which is needed for RBC formation; its lack causes pernicious anaemia.

Q74.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I: (a) Fibrinogen (b) Globulin (c) Albumin Column II: (i) Osmotic balance (ii) Blood clotting (iii) Defence mechanism

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
  • C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) ✓
  • D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)

Solution: (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (a) Fibrinogen forms fibrin threads during clotting of blood (ii). (b) Globulins, which include antibodies, take part in the defence mechanisms of the body (iii). (c) Albumin maintains the osmotic balance of blood (i).

Q75.

Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

  • A. Anthracis
  • B. Silicosis ✓
  • C. Emphysema
  • D. Botulism

Solution: Silicosis Silicosis is caused by long exposure to silica dust in grinding and stone-breaking industries, leading to inflammation and fibrosis of the lungs. (A) Anthracis refers to Bacillus anthracis, which causes anthrax, a bacterial infection. (C) Emphysema damages the alveolar walls; its major cause is cigarette smoking. (D) Botulism is food poisoning caused by the toxin of the bacterium Clostridium botulinum.

Q76.

Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

  • A. Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin. ✓
  • B. Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
  • C. Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
  • D. Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

Solution: It binds to troponin and removes the masking of active sites on actin for myosin Ca²⁺ released into the sarcoplasm binds to a subunit of troponin on the actin filaments, removing the masking of the active sites for myosin. (B) Ca²⁺ binds to troponin, not to myosin. (C) Ca²⁺ allows cross bridges to form between myosin and actin; it does not prevent them. (D) The myosin head detaches from actin when a new ATP binds to it, not because of Ca²⁺.

Q77.

Select the incorrect match :

  • A. Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents
  • B. Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
  • C. Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians ✓
  • D. Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes

Solution: Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians (the incorrect statement) Polytene chromosomes occur in the salivary glands of insects such as Drosophila (Diptera); the giant chromosomes of amphibian oocytes are lampbrush chromosomes. (A) Lampbrush chromosomes are diplotene bivalents, seen in amphibian oocytes; correct match. (B) Allosomes are the sex chromosomes; correct match. (D) A submetacentric chromosome, with the centromere slightly away from the middle, appears L-shaped at anaphase; correct match.

Q78.

Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

  • A. Proteins and lipids
  • B. DNA and RNA
  • C. Free ribosomes and RER ✓
  • D. Nucleic acids and SER

Solution: Free ribosomes and RER Nissl granules in the cell body and dendrites of a neuron are clusters of rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes, which make proteins.

Q79.

Which of these statements is incorrect?

  • A. Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
  • B. Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
  • C. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane ✓
  • D. Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

Solution: Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane (the incorrect statement) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane, where the electron transport system and ATP synthase are located. (A) The TCA cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix; this statement is correct. (B) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm (cytosol); this statement is correct. (D) Glycolysis continues only while NAD⁺ is available to accept hydrogen atoms; this statement is correct.

Q80.

Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

  • A. Protein folding
  • B. Protein glycosylation
  • C. Phospholipid synthesis ✓
  • D. Cleavage of signal peptide

Solution: Phospholipid synthesis (it occurs in the SER, not the RER) Lipids, including phospholipids and steroids, are synthesised by the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. (A) Newly made proteins fold in the lumen of the RER. (B) Glycosylation of proteins begins in the RER. (D) The signal peptide is cut off as the protein enters the lumen of the RER.

Q81.

Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

  • A. Polysome ✓
  • B. Polyhedral bodies
  • C. Nucleosome
  • D. Plastidome

Solution: Polysome Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA form a chain called a polyribosome or polysome.

Q82.

Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

  • A. Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
  • B. Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont ✓
  • C. Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
  • D. Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

Solution: Thecodont, diphyodont, heterodont Thecodont: each tooth is embedded in a socket of the jaw bone. Diphyodont: milk (deciduous) teeth are replaced by permanent teeth, so teeth form twice. Heterodont: there are four types of teeth, namely incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

Q83.

Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system

  • A. Amphibia
  • B. Reptilia
  • C. Osteichthyes
  • D. Aves ✓

Solution: Aves The digestive tract of birds has additional chambers, the crop (which stores food) and the gizzard (which grinds it).

Q84.

Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

  • A. $Macropus$
  • B. $Chelone$ ✓
  • C. $Psittacula$
  • D. $Camelus$

Solution: Chelone (turtle): not a homeotherm Chelone (turtle) is a reptile, and reptiles are cold-blooded (poikilotherms). (A) Macropus (kangaroo) is a mammal: homeotherm. (C) Psittacula (parrot) is a bird: homeotherm. (D) Camelus (camel) is a mammal: homeotherm.

Q85.

Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

  • A. Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9$^{\text{th}}$ abdominal segment
  • B. Presence of caudal styles ✓
  • C. Presence of anal cerci
  • D. Forewings with darker tegmina

Solution: Presence of caudal (anal) styles Only males bear a pair of short, thread-like anal (caudal) styles, on the 9th abdominal segment. (A) The boat-shaped sternum belongs to the 7th segment of the female, where it forms the genital pouch. (C) Anal cerci are present in both sexes. (D) Both sexes have forewings modified as tegmina.

Q86.

Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

  • A. Dinoflagellates
  • B. Diatoms ✓
  • C. Euglenoids
  • D. Cyanobacteria

Solution: Diatoms Diatoms are the chief producers in the oceans.

Q87.

Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

  • A. using flagella for locomotion
  • B. having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
  • C. having two types of nuclei ✓
  • D. using pseudopodia for capturing prey

Solution: Having two types of nuclei Ciliates such as Paramoecium have two types of nuclei, a macronucleus and a micronucleus, which other protozoan groups lack. (A) Flagella are used by flagellated protozoans; ciliates move by cilia. (B) Contractile vacuoles also occur in other freshwater protozoans such as Amoeba. (D) Pseudopodia are used by amoeboid protozoans.

Q88.

Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

  • A. Earthworm ✓
  • B. Tunicate
  • C. Starfish
  • D. Moth

Solution: Earthworm (no metamorphosis) Development in the earthworm is direct: young worms hatch from the cocoon with no larval stage, so there is no metamorphosis. (B) Tunicates have a free-swimming tadpole larva that changes into the fixed adult. (C) Starfish has a bilaterally symmetrical larva that becomes the radially symmetrical adult. (D) Moth passes through larva (caterpillar) and pupa stages.

Q89.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I (Function): (a) Ultrafiltration (b) Concentration of urine (c) Transport of urine (d) Storage of urine Column II (Part of Excretory system): (i) Henle's loop (ii) Ureter (iii) Urinary bladder (iv) Malpighian corpuscle (v) Proximal convoluted tubule

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  • B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
  • C. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  • D. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Solution: (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (a) Ultrafiltration of blood takes place in the Malpighian corpuscle (glomerulus with Bowman's capsule) (iv). (b) Henle's loop, through the counter-current mechanism, keeps the medulla hyperosmotic, which concentrates the urine (i). (c) Ureters carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder (ii). (d) The urinary bladder stores urine (iii).

Q90.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I: (a) Glycosuria (b) Gout (c) Renal calculi (d) Glomerular nephritis Column II: (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints (ii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney (iii) Inflammation in glomeruli (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

  • A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ✓
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Solution: (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (a) Glycosuria is the presence of glucose in urine (iv). (b) Gout is inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals (i). (c) Renal calculi are stones of crystallised salts, such as oxalates, formed within the kidney (ii). (d) Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney (iii).

Q91.

What is the role of NAD$^{+}$ in cellular respiration?

  • A. It functions as an enzyme.
  • B. It functions as an electron carrier. ✓
  • C. It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
  • D. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

Solution: It functions as an electron carrier NAD⁺ is a coenzyme that accepts hydrogen (electrons) from substrates to form NADH + H⁺ and passes them to the electron transport system. (A) NAD⁺ is a coenzyme, not an enzyme. (C) NAD⁺ only passes electrons on; it is not the final electron acceptor. (D) ATP is made from ADP and inorganic phosphate; NAD⁺ is not used up as a nucleotide source.

Q92.

Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

  • A. $Hydrilla$
  • B. $Yucca$ ✓
  • C. $Viola$
  • D. Banana

Solution: Yucca Yucca and a species of moth cannot complete their life cycles without each other: the moth lays its eggs in the locule of the ovary and pollinates the flower, and its larvae feed on some of the developing seeds.

Q93.

Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

  • A. Green sulphur bacteria ✓
  • B. $Nostoc$
  • C. $Chara$
  • D. $Cycas$

Solution: Green sulphur bacteria Green sulphur bacteria use H₂S, not H₂O, as the hydrogen donor, so they release sulphur instead of oxygen. (B) Nostoc is a cyanobacterium; its photosynthesis splits water and releases oxygen. (C) Chara is a green alga; its photosynthesis releases oxygen. (D) Cycas is a gymnosperm; its photosynthesis releases oxygen.

Q94.

In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?

  • A. Ferric ✓
  • B. Ferrous
  • C. Both ferric and ferrous
  • D. Free element

Solution: Ferric (Fe³⁺) Plants obtain iron in the form of ferric ions (Fe³⁺).

Q95.

Double fertilization is

  • A. Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
  • B. Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
  • C. Syngamy and triple fusion ✓
  • D. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

Solution: Syngamy and triple fusion One male gamete fuses with the egg (syngamy) and the other with the two polar nuclei (triple fusion); two kinds of fusion in one embryo sac make up double fertilisation. (A) An embryo sac has only one egg; the second male gamete fuses with the polar nuclei. (B) Fusion of a male gamete with the two polar nuclei is triple fusion alone. (D) Only one male gamete fuses with the egg.

Q96.

Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

  • A. Magnesium
  • B. Sodium
  • C. Calcium
  • D. Potassium ✓

Solution: Potassium Potassium maintains the turgidity of cells; it also keeps the anion–cation balance and controls the opening and closing of stomata.

Q97.

Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

  • A. –120$^{\circ}$C
  • B. –80$^{\circ}$C
  • C. –160$^{\circ}$C
  • D. –196$^{\circ}$C ✓

Solution: $-196^\circ\text{C}$ Liquid nitrogen is at −196 °C; pollen stored in it (cryopreservation) stays viable for years and is used as pollen banks in crop breeding.

Q98.

Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

  • A. $Saccharomyces$ ✓
  • B. $Mycobacterium$
  • C. $Oscillatoria$
  • D. $Nostoc$

Solution: Saccharomyces (yeast): a eukaryote Saccharomyces (yeast) is a unicellular fungus, so it is a eukaryote. (B) Mycobacterium is a bacterium: prokaryote. (C) Oscillatoria is a cyanobacterium: prokaryote. (D) Nostoc is a cyanobacterium: prokaryote.

Q99.

The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

  • A. Hydroxyl and methyl
  • B. Carbonyl and methyl
  • C. Carbonyl and hydroxyl ✓
  • D. Carbonyl and phosphate

Solution: Carbonyl and hydroxyl Sugars are polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones, so they carry hydroxyl (–OH) groups and a carbonyl (C=O) group.

Q100.

Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

  • A. ATP
  • B. NADH ✓
  • C. Oxygen
  • D. NADPH

Solution: NADH (not a product of the light reaction) The light reaction produces ATP, NADPH and O₂; NADH is formed in respiration, not in photosynthesis. (A) ATP is made in the light reaction by photophosphorylation. (C) O₂ is released by the splitting of water. (D) NADPH is formed when electrons from PS I reduce NADP⁺.

Q101.

Stomatal movement is not affected by

  • A. Temperature
  • B. Light
  • C. CO$_2$ concentration
  • D. O$_2$ concentration ✓

Solution: O₂ concentration Opening and closing of stomata respond to light, temperature and CO₂ concentration, but not to O₂ concentration.

Q102.

The Golgi complex participates in

  • A. Fatty acid breakdown
  • B. Formation of secretory vesicles ✓
  • C. Activation of amino acid
  • D. Respiration in bacteria

Solution: Formation of secretory vesicles The Golgi apparatus receives materials at its cis face and, after processing, releases them from its trans face as secretory vesicles. (A) Fatty acids are broken down in mitochondria. (C) Amino acids are activated in the cytoplasm when they are attached to their tRNAs (charging of tRNA). (D) Bacteria have no Golgi apparatus; mesosomes help in their respiration.

Q103.

Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

  • A. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells
  • B. It is a membrane-bound structure
  • C. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis ✓
  • D. It takes part in spindle formation

Solution: It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis The nucleolus is the site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis. (A) Larger and more numerous nucleoli are found in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis; the nucleolus disappears during cell division. (B) It is not membrane-bound; its content is continuous with the nucleoplasm. (D) Spindle fibres in animal cells come from the centrioles, not the nucleolus.

Q104.

Stomata in grass leaf are

  • A. Dumb-bell shaped ✓
  • B. Kidney shaped
  • C. Barrel shaped
  • D. Rectangular

Solution: Dumb-bell shaped In grasses the guard cells are dumb-bell shaped, whereas in most dicots they are bean-shaped (kidney-shaped).

Q105.

The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

  • A. Pachytene
  • B. Diplotene ✓
  • C. Zygotene
  • D. Diakinesis

Solution: Diplotene Diplotene begins with the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex, and the homologous chromosomes of each bivalent start to separate except at the chiasmata.

Q106.

Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

  • A. Retrovirus ✓
  • B. Ti plasmid
  • C. pBR 322
  • D. $\lambda$ phage

Solution: Retrovirus In gene therapy for ADA deficiency, a functional ADA cDNA is introduced into the patient's lymphocytes, grown in culture, using a retroviral vector. (B) The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to transform plant cells. (C) pBR322 is a plasmid vector for E. coli. (D) $\lambda$ phage is a vector for bacteria such as E. coli.

Q107.

Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

  • A. Bio-infringement
  • B. Biopiracy ✓
  • C. Bioexploitation
  • D. Biodegradation

Solution: Biopiracy Biopiracy is the use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned, and without compensatory payment.

Q108.

In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

  • A. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
  • B. Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
  • C. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) ✓
  • D. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

Solution: Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) GEAC, set up by the Government of India, decides on the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM organisms for public services.

Q109.

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

  • A. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
  • B. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
  • C. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension ✓
  • D. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

Solution: Denaturation, Annealing, Extension Denaturation: heat separates the two strands of the DNA. Annealing: on cooling, the primers bind to the single strands. Extension: a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) extends the primers.

Q110.

Select the correct match

  • A. Ribozyme – Nucleic acid ✓
  • B. F$_2$ $\times$ Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
  • C. G. Mendel – Transformation
  • D. T.H. Morgan – Transduction

Solution: Ribozyme – Nucleic acid A ribozyme is an RNA that acts as an enzyme, so it is a nucleic acid. (B) A cross with the recessive parent is a test cross, not a dihybrid cross. (C) Transformation was discovered by Frederick Griffith; Mendel worked on inheritance in pea. (D) Transduction was discovered by Zinder and Lederberg; Morgan worked on linkage in Drosophila.

Q111.

A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

  • A. Co-667
  • B. Sharbati Sonora
  • C. Basmati ✓
  • D. Lerma Rojo

Solution: Basmati In 1997 an American company got a US patent on a 'new' variety of Basmati rice that had actually been derived from Indian farmers' varieties, a case of biopiracy.

Q112.

Select the correct match

  • A. Alec Jeffreys – $Streptococcus$ $pneumoniae$
  • B. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
  • C. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon ✓
  • D. Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – $Pisum$ $sativum$

Solution: Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod were the first to work out a transcriptionally regulated system, the lac operon. (A) Alec Jeffreys developed DNA fingerprinting; Streptococcus pneumoniae was used by Griffith in his transformation experiments. (B) Hershey and Chase used bacteriophages, not TMV, to prove that DNA is the genetic material. (D) Meselson and Stahl proved semi-conservative replication in E. coli, not in Pisum sativum.

Q113.

Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

  • A. Pollenkitt
  • B. Cellulosic intine
  • C. Sporopollenin ✓
  • D. Oil content

Solution: Sporopollenin Sporopollenin in the exine withstands high temperature, strong acids and alkali, and no enzyme is known to degrade it, so pollen is well preserved as fossils. (A) Pollenkitt is a sticky, oily coat that helps pollen stick to insects. (B) The intine, made of cellulose and pectin, is not resistant like sporopollenin. (D) Oil content has no role in preserving pollen.

Q114.

The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

  • A. Fungus
  • B. Bacterium ✓
  • C. Virus
  • D. Plant

Solution: Bacterium Meselson and Stahl (1958) first proved semi-conservative replication in the bacterium Escherichia coli, using ¹⁵N and ¹⁴N.

Q115.

Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

  • A. Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles ✓
  • B. ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
  • C. T.H. Morgan : Linkage
  • D. XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

Solution: Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles (the incorrect statement) Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by one gene with only two alleles, B and b, so it is not a case of multiple alleles; it shows incomplete dominance for starch grain size. (B) In ABO blood groups, $I^A$ and $I^B$ are co-dominant; correct match. (C) T.H. Morgan worked out linkage in Drosophila; correct match. (D) Grasshopper has XO type sex determination; correct match.

Q116.

Offsets are produced by

  • A. Meiotic divisions
  • B. Mitotic divisions ✓
  • C. Parthenogenesis
  • D. Parthenocarpy

Solution: Mitotic divisions An offset, as in water hyacinth, is a vegetative propagule formed by mitotic divisions, so the new plants are clones of the parent. (A) Meiosis forms gametes or spores, not vegetative propagules. (C) Parthenogenesis is development of an embryo from an unfertilised egg. (D) Parthenocarpy is development of a fruit without fertilisation.

Q117.

Select the correct statement

  • A. Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage"
  • B. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist ✓
  • C. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
  • D. Spliceosomes take part in translation

Solution: Punnett square was developed by a British scientist The Punnett square was developed by the British geneticist Reginald C. Punnett. (A) The term 'linkage' was coined by T.H. Morgan, not Franklin Stahl. (C) Transduction was discovered by Zinder and Lederberg, not S. Altman. (D) Spliceosomes remove introns from hnRNA during processing of the transcript, not during translation.

Q118.

Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

  • A. Bamboo species ✓
  • B. Jackfruit
  • C. Papaya
  • D. Mango

Solution: Bamboo species Some bamboo species flower only once in their lifetime, generally after 50–100 years, produce a large number of fruits and die. (B) Jackfruit flowers every season once mature. (C) Papaya flowers repeatedly, almost throughout the year. (D) Mango flowers every season once mature.

Q119.

Niche is

  • A. all the biological factors in the organism's environment
  • B. the physical space where an organism lives
  • C. the functional role played by the organism where it lives ✓
  • D. the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

Solution: The functional role played by the organism where it lives Niche is the distinct functional role of an organism in its ecosystem, along with the range of conditions it tolerates and the resources it uses. (A) All the biological factors around an organism make up its biotic environment, not its niche. (B) The physical space where an organism lives is its habitat. (D) A temperature range is only one of the conditions included in the niche.

Q120.

In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?

  • A. Carbon
  • B. Cl ✓
  • C. Oxygen
  • D. Fe

Solution: Chlorine (Cl) UV rays break CFCs to release Cl atoms, which degrade ozone to molecular oxygen without being consumed, so Cl acts as a catalyst. Cl + O₃ → ClO + O₂, then ClO + O → Cl + O₂, and the freed Cl attacks more ozone.

Q121.

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer : 120 g Primary consumer : 60 g Primary producer : 10 g

  • A. Inverted pyramid of biomass ✓
  • B. Pyramid of energy
  • C. Upright pyramid of biomass
  • D. Upright pyramid of numbers

Solution: Inverted pyramid of biomass The data are masses, and they increase from producers (10 g) to secondary consumers (120 g), so the pyramid of biomass is inverted, as in the sea, where fish biomass far exceeds that of phytoplankton. (B) A pyramid of energy is always upright, and it is measured in energy units, not grams. (C) An upright pyramid of biomass needs more producer mass than consumer mass. (D) The data are in grams, so they cannot give a pyramid of numbers.

Q122.

Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

  • A. CO
  • B. CO$_2$
  • C. O$_3$ ✓
  • D. SO$_2$

Solution: O₃ (ozone) Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant: it is formed in the air when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons react in sunlight. (A) CO is released directly, for example by vehicles: primary pollutant. (B) CO₂ is released directly by burning fuels: primary pollutant. (D) SO₂ is released directly by burning coal and oil: primary pollutant.

Q123.

World Ozone Day is celebrated on

  • A. 5$^{\text{th}}$ June
  • B. 21$^{\text{st}}$ April
  • C. 22$^{\text{nd}}$ April
  • D. 16$^{\text{th}}$ September ✓

Solution: 16 September World Ozone Day is observed on 16 September, the date the Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987. 5 June is World Environment Day and 22 April is Earth Day.

Q124.

Natality refers to

  • A. Death rate
  • B. Birth rate ✓
  • C. Number of individuals entering a habitat
  • D. Number of individuals leaving the habitat

Solution: Birth rate Natality is the number of births in a population during a given period. Death rate is mortality, individuals entering a habitat is immigration and individuals leaving it is emigration.

Q125.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I: (a) Herbarium (b) Key (c) Museum (d) Catalogue Column II: (i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals (ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification (iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept (iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa

  • A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  • B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ✓
  • D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Solution: (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (a) A herbarium stores dried, pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets (iii). (b) A key lists characters and their alternates in pairs to help identify taxa (iv). (c) A museum has collections of preserved plant and animal specimens (i). (d) A catalogue methodically lists all the species of an area, with brief descriptions aiding identification (ii).

Q126.

Which one is wrongly matched?

  • A. Uniflagellate gametes – $Polysiphonia$ ✓
  • B. Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
  • C. Unicellular organism – $Chlorella$
  • D. Gemma cups – $Marchantia$

Solution: Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (the incorrect statement) Polysiphonia is a red alga, and red algae have no flagellated stages, so its gametes are non-motile. (B) Brown algae reproduce asexually by pear-shaped biflagellate zoospores; correct match. (C) Chlorella is a unicellular green alga; correct match. (D) Marchantia bears gemmae in gemma cups; correct match.

Q127.

After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

  • A. $Neurospora$
  • B. $Alternaria$
  • C. $Saccharomyces$
  • D. $Agaricus$ ✓

Solution: Agaricus In Agaricus (a basidiomycete), karyogamy and meiosis take place in the basidium, and the four basidiospores are borne exogenously on it. (A) Neurospora (an ascomycete) forms its ascospores endogenously, inside asci. (B) Alternaria is a deuteromycete, with no known sexual stage. (C) Saccharomyces (an ascomycete) forms its ascospores endogenously, inside asci.

Q128.

Winged pollen grains are present in

  • A. Mustard
  • B. $Cycas$
  • C. $Pinus$ ✓
  • D. Mango

Solution: Pinus Pinus pollen grains have two air sacs (wings) that keep them buoyant for wind pollination.

Q129.

Pneumatophores occur in

  • A. Halophytes ✓
  • B. Free-floating hydrophytes
  • C. Submerged hydrophytes
  • D. Carnivorous plants

Solution: Halophytes Mangrove halophytes of swampy areas, such as Rhizophora, have pneumatophores: roots that grow vertically up out of the ground to get oxygen for respiration.

Q130.

Plants having little or no secondary growth are

  • A. Grasses ✓
  • B. Deciduous angiosperms
  • C. Cycads
  • D. Conifers

Solution: Grasses Grasses are monocots, which have no vascular cambium in the stem, so they show little or no secondary growth. (B) Deciduous angiosperm trees are dicots with vascular and cork cambium, so they show secondary growth. (C) Cycads have a vascular cambium and show secondary growth. (D) Conifers are woody trees with extensive secondary growth.

Q131.

Casparian strips occur in

  • A. Epidermis
  • B. Pericycle
  • C. Endodermis ✓
  • D. Cortex

Solution: Endodermis The radial and tangential walls of endodermal cells carry casparian strips of water-impermeable, waxy suberin.

Q132.

Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

  • A. Apical meristems
  • B. Vascular cambium ✓
  • C. Axillary meristems
  • D. Phellogen

Solution: Vascular cambium The vascular cambium cuts off secondary xylem towards the inside (pith) and secondary phloem towards the outside. (A) Apical meristems add to the length of the plant (primary growth). (C) Axillary meristems give rise to branches or flowers. (D) Phellogen (cork cambium) forms cork and secondary cortex.

Q133.

Select the wrong statement :

  • A. Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae
  • B. Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
  • C. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera
  • D. Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans ✓

Solution: Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans (the incorrect statement) Pseudopodia are the locomotory and feeding structures of amoeboid protozoans such as Amoeba; sporozoans such as Plasmodium have no locomotory structures. (A) Fungi and plants both have cell walls (chitin in fungi, cellulose in plants); this statement is correct. (B) Mushrooms such as Agaricus are basidiomycetes; this statement is correct. (C) Monera are prokaryotes without mitochondria, while the other kingdoms have them; this statement is correct.

Q134.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  • A. Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms ✓
  • B. $Selaginella$ is heterosporous, while $Salvinia$ is homosporous
  • C. Stems are usually unbranched in both $Cycas$ and $Cedrus$
  • D. Horsetails are gymnosperms

Solution: Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms Gymnosperms have naked ovules: they are not enclosed by an ovary wall, before or after fertilisation. (B) Both Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous. (C) Cycas has an unbranched stem, but Cedrus has a branched stem. (D) Horsetails (Equisetum) are pteridophytes, not gymnosperms.

Q135.

Sweet potato is a modified

  • A. Stem
  • B. Adventitious root ✓
  • C. Rhizome
  • D. Tap root

Solution: Adventitious root Sweet potato is a swollen adventitious root that stores food. Carrot and turnip are swollen tap roots, while potato and ginger are underground stems.

Q136.

The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

  • A. HNO$_3$, NO, N$_2$, NH$_4$Cl ✓
  • B. HNO$_3$, NO, NH$_4$Cl, N$_2$
  • C. NH$_4$Cl, N$_2$, NO, HNO$_3$
  • D. HNO$_3$, NH$_4$Cl, NO, N$_2$

Solution: HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl HNO₃: $1 + x - 6 = 0 \Rightarrow x = +5$ NO: $x - 2 = 0 \Rightarrow x = +2$; N₂ is an element, so $x = 0$ NH₄Cl: in NH₄⁺, $x + 4 = +1 \Rightarrow x = -3$ ∴ Decreasing order of oxidation state: HNO₃ > NO > N₂ > NH₄Cl

Q137.

The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

  • A. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
  • B. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
  • C. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl ✓
  • D. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

Solution: Boron < gallium < aluminium < indium < thallium Atomic radii (pm): B 85, Ga 135, Al 143, In 167, Tl 170. Ga is smaller than Al because its ten inner 3d electrons shield the nucleus poorly, so its outer electrons feel a larger effective nuclear charge. ∴ B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

Q138.

Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

  • A. Fe
  • B. Zn
  • C. Cu
  • D. Mg ✓

Solution: Mg In the Ellingham diagram, a metal can reduce an oxide whose ΔG° line lies above its own. The MgO line lies below the Al₂O₃ line (below the temperature where they cross), so Mg can reduce alumina. The lines for the oxides of Fe, Zn and Cu lie above the Al₂O₃ line, so these metals cannot reduce it.

Q139.

Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF$_6^{3-}$ ion?

  • A. Ga
  • B. Al
  • C. In
  • D. B ✓

Solution: Boron (B) Boron has no d orbitals in its valence shell, so its maximum covalency is 4 (as in BF₄⁻) and it cannot form BF₆³⁻. Al, Ga and In have vacant d orbitals, so they can extend their covalency to 6 and form MF₆³⁻.

Q140.

Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

  • A. All form monobasic oxyacids
  • B. All are oxidizing agents
  • C. Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy
  • D. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states ✓

Solution: Due to high electronegativity and small size, F forms only one oxoacid, HOF, known as fluoric (I) acid. The oxidation number of F in HOF is $+1$, so it is not true that all halogens but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

Q141.

In the structure of ClF$_3$, the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is

  • A. One
  • B. Two ✓
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

Solution: Two Cl has 7 valence electrons; 3 form bonds with the three F atoms, leaving 4 electrons as two lone pairs. Five electron pairs take a trigonal bipyramidal arrangement with both lone pairs equatorial, so ClF₃ is T-shaped.

Q142.

The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

  • A. Amylopectin have 1 $\to$ 4 $\alpha$-linkage and 1 $\to$ 6 $\alpha$-linkage ✓
  • B. Amylose have 1 $\to$ 4 $\alpha$-linkage and 1 $\to$ 6 $\beta$-linkage
  • C. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose
  • D. Amylopectin have 1 $\to$ 4 $\alpha$-linkage and 1 $\to$ 6 $\beta$-linkage

Solution: Amylopectin has α-1→4 and α-1→6 linkages Amylopectin is a branched polymer of α-D-glucose: its chains have C1–C4 α-glycosidic links and the branches arise by C1–C6 α-glycosidic links. (B) Amylose is an unbranched chain with only C1–C4 α-links; it has no 1→6 β-links. (C) Amylose is made of α-D-glucose units only, not galactose. (D) Both polymers are made of α-D-glucose, so the 1→6 links of amylopectin are α, not β.

Q143.

Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • A. They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.
  • B. They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.
  • C. They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains. ✓
  • D. Examples are bakelite and melamine.

Solution: They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains (the incorrect statement) Network polymers are defined by strong covalent bonds between the linear polymer chains; bonds within the chains are present in every polymer and do not describe cross-linking. (A) Covalent bonds between the various linear chains are what make them cross-linked; this statement is correct. (B) They are formed from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers; this statement is correct. (D) Bakelite and melamine are network polymers; this statement is correct.

Q144.

A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H$_2$SO$_4$. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

  • A. 1.4
  • B. 3.0
  • C. 4.4
  • D. 2.8 ✓

Solution: 2.8 g Conc. H₂SO₄ dehydrates both acids: HCOOH → CO + H₂O and (COOH)₂ → CO + CO₂ + H₂O Moles of formic acid $= \dfrac{2.3}{46} = 0.05$ and of oxalic acid $= \dfrac{4.5}{90} = 0.05$ Gases formed: CO = 0.05 + 0.05 = 0.1 mol and CO₂ = 0.05 mol KOH absorbs CO₂, leaving only CO: mass $= 0.1 \times 28\ \text{g} = 2.8\ \text{g}$

Q145.

Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

  • A. MgO
  • B. BeO ✓
  • C. CaO
  • D. BaO

Solution: BeO The basic character of group 2 oxides increases down the group: BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO. BeO is amphoteric, while MgO, CaO and BaO are basic, so BeO is the most acidic.

Q146.

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

  • A. Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.
  • B. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.
  • C. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion. ✓
  • D. In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.

Solution: In strong acidic medium aniline is present as the anilinium ion In strongly acidic medium aniline is protonated to the anilinium ion, C₆H₅NH₃⁺, and the –NH₃⁺ group is meta directing. So besides p-nitroaniline (51%) and o-nitroaniline (2%), a large amount of m-nitroaniline (47%) is formed. (A) The position taken by the nitro group depends on the substituent already present. (B) The free –NH₂ group is ortho and para directing. (D) In benzene with no substituent all positions are equivalent, so there is no meta position.

Q147.

The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl$_5$ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

  • A. C$_2$H$_5$OH, C$_2$H$_6$, C$_2$H$_5$Cl
  • B. C$_2$H$_5$OH, C$_2$H$_5$Cl, C$_2$H$_5$ONa
  • C. C$_2$H$_5$OH, C$_2$H$_5$ONa, C$_2$H$_5$Cl ✓
  • D. C$_2$H$_5$Cl, C$_2$H$_6$, C$_2$H$_5$OH

Solution: C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl With Na, ethanol gives sodium ethoxide (B): 2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂ With PCl₅, ethanol gives chloroethane (C): C₂H₅OH + PCl₅ → C₂H₅Cl + POCl₃ + HCl Williamson synthesis: C₂H₅ONa + C₂H₅Cl → C₂H₅OC₂H₅ + NaCl ∴ A, B and C are C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa and C₂H₅Cl.

Q148.

Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

  • A. CH $\equiv$ CH
  • B. CH$_2$ $=$ CH$_2$
  • C. CH$_4$ ✓
  • D. CH$_3$ – CH$_3$

Solution: CH₄ (methane) Alkanes react with bromine by substitution; ethyne and ethene add bromine instead. CH₄ + Br₂ → CH₃Br + HBr (in light), then Wurtz reaction: 2CH₃Br + 2Na → CH₃–CH₃ + 2NaBr (dry ether) Ethane has two carbon atoms, fewer than four, as required. (D) Ethane would give C₂H₅Br and then butane, with four carbon atoms.

Q149.

The compound C$_7$H$_8$ undergoes the following reactions: C$_7$H$_8$ $\xrightarrow{3\text{Cl}_2/\Delta}$ A $\xrightarrow{\text{Br}_2/\text{Fe}}$ B $\xrightarrow{\text{Zn/HCl}}$ C The product 'C' is

  • A. m-bromotoluene ✓
  • B. o-bromotoluene
  • C. p-bromotoluene
  • D. 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

Solution: m-bromotoluene C₇H₈ is toluene; Cl₂ with heat substitutes the side chain, giving benzotrichloride, C₆H₅CCl₃ (A). –CCl₃ is electron-withdrawing and meta directing, so Br₂/Fe gives m-bromobenzotrichloride (B). Zn/HCl reduces –CCl₃ back to –CH₃, giving m-bromotoluene (C).

Q150.

Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

  • A. N$_2$O$_5$ ✓
  • B. NO$_2$
  • C. NO
  • D. N$_2$O

Solution: N₂O₅ (not a common pollutant) NO, NO₂ and N₂O enter the atmosphere both from natural processes (lightning, soil bacteria) and from human activity (burning of fuels, fertilisers). N₂O₅ is not released in significant amounts by either, so it is not a common pollutant.

Q151.

Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp$^{2}$, sp$^{2}$, sp, sp from left to right atoms?

  • A. HC $\equiv$ C – C $\equiv$ CH
  • B. CH$_2$ = CH – C $\equiv$ CH ✓
  • C. CH$_3$ – CH = CH – CH$_3$
  • D. CH$_2$ = CH – CH = CH$_2$

Solution: CH₂=CH–C≡CH A carbon with a double bond (three σ bonds) is sp², one with a triple bond (two σ bonds) is sp, and one with only single bonds is sp³. In CH₂=CH–C≡CH the first two carbons are double-bonded (sp², sp²) and the last two are triple-bonded (sp, sp). (A) HC≡C–C≡CH is sp, sp, sp, sp. (C) CH₃–CH=CH–CH₃ is sp³, sp², sp², sp³. (D) CH₂=CH–CH=CH₂ is sp², sp², sp², sp².

Q152.

Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?

  • A. Structure (1)
  • B. Structure (2)
  • C. Structure (3)
  • D. Structure (4) ✓

Solution: Structure (4): the positive charge is farthest from the –NO₂ group The –NO₂ group withdraws electrons by its –I effect, which destabilises a carbocation. The –I effect weakens as the distance from the nitro group increases. In structure (4) the positive charge is on the carbon farthest from –NO₂, so it is destabilised least and is the most stable.

Q153.

In the reaction Phenol $+$ CHCl$_3$ $+$ NaOH $\longrightarrow$ sodium salicylaldehyde (the ortho-hydroxy benzaldehyde salt) The electrophile involved is

  • A. Dichloromethyl cation ($\overset{\oplus}{\text{C}}$HCl$_2$)
  • B. Formyl cation ($\overset{\oplus}{\text{C}}$HO)
  • C. Dichlorocarbene (: CCl$_2$) ✓
  • D. Dichloromethyl anion ($\overset{\ominus}{\text{C}}$HCl$_2$)

Solution: Dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂) This is the Reimer–Tiemann reaction; the base converts chloroform into dichlorocarbene, the electrophile. CHCl₃ + OH⁻ ⇌ CCl₃⁻ + H₂O, then CCl₃⁻ → :CCl₂ + Cl⁻ The electron-deficient :CCl₂ attacks the ortho position of the phenoxide ion, and hydrolysis then gives salicylaldehyde.

Q154.

Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

  • A. Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
  • B. Formation of carboxylate ion
  • C. Formation of intermolecular H-bonding ✓
  • D. More extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

Solution: Formation of intermolecular H-bonding Carboxylic acid molecules associate extensively through intermolecular hydrogen bonds, existing as dimers even in the vapour phase, so more energy is needed to boil them. (A) Intramolecular H-bonding would lower the boiling point, not raise it. (B) Carboxylate ions are not formed in the pure acid. (D) The association is through hydrogen bonds, not van der Waals forces.

Q155.

Compound A, C$_8$H$_{10}$O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively

  • A. CH$_3$–C$_6$H$_4$–CH$_2$–OH and I$_2$
  • B. C$_6$H$_5$–CH$_2$–CH$_2$–OH and I$_2$
  • C. (CH$_3$)$_2$C$_6$H$_3$–OH and I$_2$
  • D. C$_6$H$_5$–CH(OH)–CH$_3$ and I$_2$ ✓

Solution: C₆H₅–CH(OH)–CH₃ and I₂ NaOI is made from iodine and alkali: I₂ + 2NaOH → NaOI + NaI + H₂O, so Y is I₂. The yellow precipitate with a characteristic smell is iodoform, CHI₃, given by compounds with a CH₃CH(OH)– or CH₃CO– group. C₆H₅–CH(OH)–CH₃ (C₈H₁₀O) is oxidised to acetophenone, C₆H₅COCH₃, which gives CHI₃ and sodium benzoate. The compounds in (A), (B) and (C) have no CH₃CH(OH)– group, so they give no iodoform.

Q156.

Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions: Benzene $+$ CH$_3$CH$_2$CH$_2$Cl $\xrightarrow{\text{Anhydrous AlCl}_3}$ P P $\xrightarrow[\text{(ii) H}_3\text{O}^{+}/\Delta]{\text{(i) O}_2}$ Q $+$ R

  • A. P = propylbenzene, Q = benzaldehyde, R = ethanol
  • B. P = propylbenzene, Q = benzaldehyde, R = benzoic acid
  • C. P = isopropylbenzene (cumene), Q = phenol, R = acetone ✓
  • D. P = isopropylbenzene (cumene), Q = phenol, R = propan-2-ol

Solution: P = cumene (isopropylbenzene), Q = phenol, R = acetone In Friedel–Crafts alkylation the n-propyl carbocation rearranges by a 1,2-hydride shift to the more stable isopropyl carbocation, so P is cumene. Cumene is oxidised by air (O₂) to cumene hydroperoxide. Acid hydrolysis (H₃O⁺) of cumene hydroperoxide gives phenol (Q) and acetone (R).

Q157.

Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

  • A. Aniline
  • B. Acetanilide
  • C. Glycine ✓
  • D. Benzoic acid

Solution: Glycine Glycine has both an acidic –COOH group and a basic –NH₂ group; internal proton transfer gives the zwitterion H₃N⁺–CH₂–COO⁻. (A) Aniline has only a basic –NH₂ group. (B) Acetanilide has no free acidic or basic group. (D) Benzoic acid has only an acidic –COOH group.

Q158.

For the redox reaction MnO$_4^{-}$ $+$ C$_2$O$_4^{2-}$ $+$ H$^{+}$ $\longrightarrow$ Mn$^{2+}$ $+$ CO$_2$ $+$ H$_2$O The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are (MnO$_4^{-}$, C$_2$O$_4^{2-}$, H$^{+}$ respectively)

  • A. 16, 5, 2
  • B. 2, 5, 16 ✓
  • C. 5, 16, 2
  • D. 2, 16, 5

Solution: 2, 5, 16 Mn changes from +7 to +2 (gain of 5 e⁻ per MnO₄⁻); C changes from +3 to +4 (loss of 2 e⁻ per C₂O₄²⁻). Electrons gained = electrons lost: 2 MnO₄⁻ (10 e⁻) react with 5 C₂O₄²⁻ (10 e⁻). Balancing O with H₂O and H with H⁺: 2MnO₄⁻ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O Charge check: left $-2 - 10 + 16 = +4$, right $+4$.

Q159.

Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction, A$_2$(g) $+$ B$_2$(g) $\rightleftharpoons$ X$_2$(g), $\Delta_r$H $= -$X kJ?

  • A. Low temperature and high pressure ✓
  • B. Low temperature and low pressure
  • C. High temperature and low pressure
  • D. High temperature and high pressure

Solution: Low temperature and high pressure Le Chatelier's principle: an equilibrium shifts so as to undo the change imposed on it. 2 mol of gas give 1 mol, so high pressure shifts the equilibrium forward, towards fewer moles. The forward reaction is exothermic, so low temperature shifts the equilibrium forward.

Q160.

When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

  • A. Is halved
  • B. Is doubled ✓
  • C. Remains unchanged
  • D. Is tripled

Solution: Is doubled For a zero order reaction $[A] = [A]_0 - kt$, so $t_{1/2} = \dfrac{[A]_0}{2k}$. $t_{1/2} \propto [A]_0$, so doubling the initial concentration doubles the half-life.

Q161.

The correction factor 'a' to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

  • A. Density of the gas molecules
  • B. Volume of the gas molecules
  • C. Forces of attraction between the gas molecules ✓
  • D. Electric field present between the gas molecules

Solution: Forces of attraction between the gas molecules van der Waals equation: $\left(p + \dfrac{an^2}{V^2}\right)(V - nb) = nRT$ The term $\dfrac{an^2}{V^2}$ corrects the pressure for the forces of attraction between molecules, while b corrects for the volume of the molecules.

Q162.

The bond dissociation energies of X$_2$, Y$_2$ and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $\Delta$H for the formation of XY is –200 kJ mol$^{-1}$. The bond dissociation energy of X$_2$ will be

  • A. 200 kJ mol$^{-1}$
  • B. 100 kJ mol$^{-1}$
  • C. 400 kJ mol$^{-1}$
  • D. 800 kJ mol$^{-1}$ ✓

Solution: $800\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ Formation of XY: ½X₂(g) + ½Y₂(g) → XY(g) Let the bond dissociation energy of X₂ be x; then that of Y₂ is 0.5x and that of XY is x. ΔH = bonds broken − bonds formed $= \tfrac{1}{2}x + \tfrac{1}{2}(0.5x) - x = -\dfrac{x}{4}$ $-\dfrac{x}{4} = -200\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1} \Rightarrow x = 800\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$

Q163.

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s$^{2}$ 2s$^{2}$ 2p$^{3}$, the simplest formula for this compound is

  • A. Mg$_2$X$_3$
  • B. MgX$_2$
  • C. Mg$_3$X$_2$ ✓
  • D. Mg$_2$X

Solution: Mg₃X₂ X (1s² 2s² 2p³) is nitrogen; it gains 3 electrons to form X³⁻, while Mg loses 2 electrons to form Mg²⁺. Balancing the charges, 3 Mg²⁺ (+6) combine with 2 X³⁻ (−6), giving Mg₃X₂.

Q164.

Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900$^{\circ}$C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900$^{\circ}$C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

  • A. $\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}$
  • B. $\dfrac{4\sqrt{3}}{3\sqrt{2}}$
  • C. $\dfrac{1}{2}$
  • D. $\dfrac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\sqrt{2}}$ ✓

Solution: $\dfrac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\sqrt{2}}$ Density $d = \dfrac{ZM}{a^3N_A}$, with M and r unchanged. bcc: $Z = 2$, $a = \dfrac{4r}{\sqrt{3}}$; fcc: $Z = 4$, $a = 2\sqrt{2}\,r$ $\dfrac{d_{\text{bcc}}}{d_{\text{fcc}}} = \dfrac{2}{4}\left(\dfrac{2\sqrt{2}\,r}{4r/\sqrt{3}}\right)^3 = \dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{\sqrt{6}}{2}\right)^3 = \dfrac{3\sqrt{6}}{8}$ $\therefore \dfrac{d_{\text{bcc}}}{d_{\text{fcc}}} = \dfrac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\sqrt{2}}$

Q165.

Consider the following species : CN$^{+}$, CN$^{-}$, NO and CN Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

  • A. NO
  • B. CN$^{-}$ ✓
  • C. CN
  • D. CN$^{+}$

Solution: CN⁻ Electrons: CN⁺ 12, CN 13, CN⁻ 14, NO 15. CN⁻ has 14 electrons like N₂: 10 bonding and 4 antibonding, so bond order $= \dfrac{10 - 4}{2} = 3$. CN: $\dfrac{9 - 4}{2} = 2.5$; CN⁺: $\dfrac{8 - 4}{2} = 2$; NO: $\dfrac{10 - 5}{2} = 2.5$ ∴ CN⁻ has the highest bond order.

Q166.

Which one is a wrong statement?

  • A. Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
  • B. An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers
  • C. The value of m for d$_{z^{2}}$ is zero
  • D. The electronic configuration of N atom is 1s$^{2}$ 2s$^{2}$ 2p$_x^{1}$ 2p$_y^{1}$ 2p$_z^{1}$ with the three 2p electrons drawn as two spins up and one spin down ✓

Solution: Nitrogen's three 2p electrons shown as two spins up and one down (the incorrect statement) By Hund's rule, the three 2p electrons of nitrogen occupy the three 2p orbitals singly with parallel spins; one opposite spin breaks the rule. (A) For an s orbital $l = 0$, so the orbital angular momentum $\sqrt{l(l+1)}\,\dfrac{h}{2\pi} = 0$; this statement is correct. (B) n, l and m define an orbital, and the spin quantum number is added for an electron; this statement is correct. (C) The $d_{z^2}$ orbital has $m = 0$; this statement is correct.

Q167.

The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that

  • A. The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations
  • B. The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]$_0$; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]$_0$ ✓
  • C. The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
  • D. A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

Solution: The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]₀; that of a second-order reaction does First order: $t_{1/2} = \dfrac{0.693}{k}$, independent of $[A]_0$. Second order: $t_{1/2} = \dfrac{1}{k[A]_0}$, which depends on $[A]_0$. (A) The rate of a first order reaction, $k[A]$, depends on reactant concentration. (C) The rate of a second order reaction also depends on reactant concentration. (D) Reactions of any order can be catalysed.

Q168.

In which case is number of molecules of water maximum?

  • A. 18 mL of water ✓
  • B. 0.18 g of water
  • C. 10$^{-3}$ mol of water
  • D. 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

Solution: 18 mL of water Number of molecules = moles × $N_A$, so compare the moles. 18 mL of water = 18 g (density 1 g mL⁻¹) = 1 mol 0.18 g $= \dfrac{0.18}{18} = 10^{-2}$ mol; the third is $10^{-3}$ mol; 0.00224 L of vapour at STP $= \dfrac{0.00224}{22.4} = 10^{-4}$ mol ∴ 18 mL of water has the most molecules ($N_A$).

Q169.

Among CaH$_2$, BeH$_2$, BaH$_2$, the order of ionic character is

  • A. BeH$_2$ < CaH$_2$ < BaH$_2$ ✓
  • B. CaH$_2$ < BeH$_2$ < BaH$_2$
  • C. BaH$_2$ < BeH$_2$ < CaH$_2$
  • D. BeH$_2$ < BaH$_2$ < CaH$_2$

Solution: BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂ Down group 2 the metal becomes larger and more electropositive, so the ionic character of its hydride increases. BeH₂ is covalent and polymeric, while CaH₂ and BaH₂ are ionic. ∴ BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

Q170.

Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below : BrO$_4^{-}$ $\xrightarrow{1.82\ \text{V}}$ BrO$_3^{-}$ $\xrightarrow{1.5\ \text{V}}$ HBrO $\xrightarrow{1.595\ \text{V}}$ Br$_2$ $\xrightarrow{1.0652\ \text{V}}$ Br$^{-}$ Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

  • A. BrO$_3^{-}$
  • B. BrO$_4^{-}$
  • C. HBrO ✓
  • D. Br$_2$

Solution: HBrO A species disproportionates if E° for its own reduction is greater than E° for the couple that oxidises it, so that E°cell is positive. HBrO → Br₂ (reduction) has E° = 1.595 V; the couple BrO₃⁻/HBrO (its oxidation) has E° = 1.5 V. $E^\circ_{\text{cell}} = 1.595\ \text{V} - 1.5\ \text{V} = 0.095\ \text{V} > 0$, so HBrO disproportionates. For Br₂, $1.0652 - 1.595 < 0$; for BrO₃⁻, $1.5 - 1.82 < 0$; BrO₄⁻ cannot be oxidised further.

Q171.

The solubility of BaSO$_4$ in water is $2.42 \times 10^{-3}$ gL$^{-1}$ at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (K$_{sp}$) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO$_4$ = 233 g mol$^{-1}$)

  • A. $1.08 \times 10^{-10}$ mol$^{2}$L$^{-2}$ ✓
  • B. $1.08 \times 10^{-12}$ mol$^{2}$L$^{-2}$
  • C. $1.08 \times 10^{-8}$ mol$^{2}$L$^{-2}$
  • D. $1.08 \times 10^{-14}$ mol$^{2}$L$^{-2}$

Solution: $1.08 \times 10^{-10}\ \text{mol}^2\ \text{L}^{-2}$ Molar solubility $s = \dfrac{2.42 \times 10^{-3}}{233}\ \text{mol L}^{-1} = 1.04 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{mol L}^{-1}$ BaSO₄(s) ⇌ Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq), each ion at concentration s $K_{sp} = s^2 = (1.04 \times 10^{-5})^2 = 1.08 \times 10^{-10}\ \text{mol}^2\ \text{L}^{-2}$

Q172.

Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations : (a) 60 mL $\dfrac{M}{10}$ HCl $+$ 40 mL $\dfrac{M}{10}$ NaOH (b) 55 mL $\dfrac{M}{10}$ HCl $+$ 45 mL $\dfrac{M}{10}$ NaOH (c) 75 mL $\dfrac{M}{5}$ HCl $+$ 25 mL $\dfrac{M}{5}$ NaOH (d) 100 mL $\dfrac{M}{10}$ HCl $+$ 100 mL $\dfrac{M}{10}$ NaOH pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

  • A. (b)
  • B. (a)
  • C. (c) ✓
  • D. (d)

Solution: Mixture (c), 75 mL M/5 HCl + 25 mL M/5 NaOH HCl: $75 \times \tfrac{1}{5} = 15$ mmol; NaOH: $25 \times \tfrac{1}{5} = 5$ mmol; total volume 100 mL. HCl left $= 15 - 5 = 10$ mmol, so [H⁺] $= \dfrac{10}{100}\ \text{M} = 0.1\ \text{M}$ pH $= -\log 0.1 = 1$ Mixture (a) gives [H⁺] = 0.02 M (pH 1.7), (b) gives 0.01 M (pH 2), and (d) is neutral (pH 7).

Q173.

On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

  • A. The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
  • B. Size of the ion alone
  • C. The sign of charge on the ion alone
  • D. Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion ✓

Solution: Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion Only the ion with charge opposite to that of the colloidal particles causes coagulation, so the sign matters. Hardy–Schulze rule: the greater the valence of the coagulating ion, the greater its coagulating power, so the magnitude matters too. (A) Magnitude alone is not enough; the ion must also carry the opposite sign. (B) Size of the ion is not the deciding factor. (C) Sign alone is not enough; Al³⁺ coagulates a negative sol far more than Na⁺.

Q174.

Given van der Waals constant for NH$_3$, H$_2$, O$_2$ and CO$_2$ are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

  • A. NH$_3$ ✓
  • B. H$_2$
  • C. CO$_2$
  • D. O$_2$

Solution: NH₃ The van der Waals constant a measures intermolecular attraction; the larger a is, the more easily the gas liquefies. Values of a: NH₃ 4.17 > CO₂ 3.59 > O₂ 1.36 > H₂ 0.244 ∴ NH₃ is liquefied most easily.

Q175.

Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)$_5$ is

  • A. Tetranuclear
  • B. Mononuclear ✓
  • C. Dinuclear
  • D. Trinuclear

Solution: Mononuclear Fe(CO)₅ has one metal atom, so it is mononuclear; Co₂(CO)₈ is dinuclear and Fe₃(CO)₁₂ is trinuclear.

Q176.

The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl$_2$(en)$_2$] is

  • A. Geometrical isomerism ✓
  • B. Coordination isomerism
  • C. Linkage isomerism
  • D. Ionization isomerism

Solution: Geometrical isomerism [CoCl₂(en)₂] is an octahedral complex of the type M(AA)₂B₂, which exists as cis and trans isomers: geometrical isomerism. (B) Coordination isomerism needs both the cation and the anion to be complex ions. (C) Linkage isomerism needs an ambidentate ligand such as NO₂⁻ or SCN⁻. (D) Ionisation isomerism needs a counter ion that can exchange with a ligand.

Q177.

Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

  • A. CrO$_4^{2-}$
  • B. Cr$_2$O$_7^{2-}$
  • C. MnO$_4^{2-}$ ✓
  • D. MnO$_4^{-}$

Solution: MnO₄²⁻ In MnO₄²⁻, Mn is +6 with configuration [Ar] 3d¹: the one unpaired electron makes it paramagnetic and allows a d–d transition. (A) In CrO₄²⁻, Cr⁶⁺ is 3d⁰: no d electrons, diamagnetic. (B) In Cr₂O₇²⁻, Cr⁶⁺ is 3d⁰: diamagnetic. (D) In MnO₄⁻, Mn⁷⁺ is 3d⁰: diamagnetic; its colour comes from charge transfer, not a d–d transition.

Q178.

The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)$_4$] are

  • A. Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
  • B. Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic ✓
  • C. Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
  • D. Square planar geometry and paramagnetic

Solution: Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic In Ni(CO)₄ nickel is in the zero oxidation state: [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s². CO is a strong field ligand, so the 4s electrons pair up in the 3d orbitals, giving 3d¹⁰ with no unpaired electrons: diamagnetic. The empty 4s and 4p orbitals give sp³ hybridisation, so the geometry is tetrahedral.

Q179.

Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code : Column I: (a) Co$^{3+}$ (b) Cr$^{3+}$ (c) Fe$^{3+}$ (d) Ni$^{2+}$ Column II: (i) $\sqrt{8}$ BM (ii) $\sqrt{35}$ BM (iii) $\sqrt{3}$ BM (iv) $\sqrt{24}$ BM (v) $\sqrt{15}$ BM

  • A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) ✓
  • B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  • C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  • D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Solution: (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) Spin-only magnetic moment $\mu = \sqrt{n(n + 2)}$ BM, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. (a) Co³⁺, 3d⁶: $n = 4$, $\mu = \sqrt{24}$ BM (iv) (b) Cr³⁺, 3d³: $n = 3$, $\mu = \sqrt{15}$ BM (v) (c) Fe³⁺, 3d⁵: $n = 5$, $\mu = \sqrt{35}$ BM (ii) (d) Ni²⁺, 3d⁸: $n = 2$, $\mu = \sqrt{8}$ BM (i)

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